Suppose that the economy is at equilibrium at $1,000 billion, and potential output is $1,200 billion. If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.9, then government spending must increase by $_____ billion to reach potential output.

Answer:

correct option is E) everyday low pricing

Explanation:

solution

Rise of Walmart brought the concept of Everyday low pricing  as we all aware everyone need good quality product in low price and Walmart is one the world largest corporation that give almost everyday attractive offer to their customers Incredible Prices on many different quality brands

they giver offer according to trends for autumn winter to attract all customers

so we can that here correct option is E) everyday low pricing

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Interest expense A/c Dr $3,000

           To Interest payable A/c $3,000

(Being interest is recorded)

The computation of the interest expense is shown below:

= Principal × rate of interest × number of months ÷ total number of months in a year

= $125,000 × 6% × (4 months ÷ 12 months)

= $2,500

The four-month is calculated from the September 1 to December 31

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $16,250

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

On January 1, the Matthews Band pays $66,000 for sound equipment. The band estimates it will use this equipment for four years and perform 200 concerts. It estimates that after four years it can sell the equipment for $1,000.

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (66,000 - 1,000)/4= $16,250

The first-year depreciation using the straight-line method is $16,250.

The first-year depreciation using the straight-line method can be calculated by subtracting the estimated salvage value from the initial cost of the equipment and then dividing the result by the estimated useful life of the equipment. In this case, the initial cost is $66,000, the estimated salvage value is $1,000, and the estimated useful life is 4 years.

To find the first-year depreciation, we use the formula: (Initial cost - Salvage value) / Useful life.

Therefore, the first-year depreciation is ($66,000 - $1,000) / 4 = $16,250.

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Answer:

experiential shopping

Explanation:

Experiential Shopping is done in order to avoid the boredom and get engaged in an activity, basically for moving out of the room and finally having a view and enjoying it. The goods are purchased without any planning, and only because you saw them and you like them.

This is done in order to recreate peace.

This is done by people to create happiness and internal satisfaction. Shopping do not provide happiness to them unlike impulsive shopping, but the mere thought to go out and enjoy do provides them the happiness they intend to have.

Answer:

Andrea Amati invent?

A. The viol

B. The violin

C. The flute sanfijasionasi

D. The lute

Explanation:s dkgsjlg

Andrea Amati invent?

A. The viol

B. The violin

THSJND

C. The flute

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D. The lute

Answer:d. total market service quality survey.

Explanation:

The analysis of the total market service quality survey helps to provide details information on the product performance, personal contributions to success, company competitor performance, and other market related results.

Employee survey will not give information on the product nor customers evaluation, customer focused interview will miss out other vital information like competitors market performance, solicitation of customers complain may be bias and mystery shopping may not be adequate to be used for evaluation.

Final answer:

The correct statement regarding costs within a relevant range is that a variable cost is variable in total and decreases per unit as the number of units increases. Fixed costs remain constant in total, while variable costs such as labor and raw materials vary directly with the level of output.

Explanation:

When discussing costs within a relevant range, it is important to understand how different types of costs behave in relation to production levels. Answer choice (a) states that a fixed cost is fixed in total and decreases per unit as the number of units increases. This is correct, as fixed costs, such as rent or salaries, do not change with the level of output; therefore, when more units are produced, the cost allocated to each unit of product becomes less.

Answer choices (b) and (d) incorrectly describe variable costs. Variable costs change in total depending on the level of production, but they do not decrease per unit as the number of units increases, nor do they increase per unit as the output increases. Instead, as indicated in choice (c), a variable cost is variable in total and decreases per unit as the volume of production increases, due to economies of scale and the spreading of fixed costs over more units. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Labor and raw materials are examples of variable costs because they vary directly with the level of output. The more goods or services produced, the more labor and raw materials are generally required, thus increasing the variable costs.

The sustainable growth rate (SGR) can be calculated using the formula SGR=(Retention ratio*Return on Equity). ROE is derived from the combination of profit margin, asset turnover, and financial leverage. By applying the provided data for Under Armour, Inc. ranging from 2009 to 2013, calculated values range from 15.1% to 20.3%

The sustainable growth rate (SGR) for a company is the rate at which the company can grow its sales, earnings, and dividends while maintaining its current financial structure. It's typically calculated using the formula: SGR=(Retention ratio*Return on Equity), given as a percentage. The return on equity (ROE) can be derived from the combination of profit margin, asset turnover, and financial leverage (the formula for which is ROE=Profit margin*Asset turnover*Financial leverage).

Now, applying the given data:

These values are approximate and should be rounded to the nearest decimal point in any professional financial report.

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Answer:

d. $1,934

Explanation:

Total amount of payroll tax expense=Social security tax withheld+Medicare tax withheld +State and federal unemployment compensation taxes on earnings=1200+300+.062*7000=$1934 (d. $1,934)

Answer:

Maturity value = $164,625

Explanation:

given data

time = 9 month

principal = $150,000

rate = 13%

to find out

maturity value

solution

we get here Maturity value that is express as

Maturity value = Principle + interest    ........................1

put here value we get Maturity value

Maturity value = $150,000 + ( $150,000 × 13% × [tex]\frac{9}{12}[/tex] )

Maturity value = $150,000 + $14,625

Maturity value = $164,625

Final answer:

The maturity value of the 9-month note for $150,000 at a 13% annual interest rate is $164,625 when rounded to the nearest dollar.

Explanation:

To calculate the maturity value of the note for Parker Company's customer, we must compute both the principal and the interest accrued over the 9-month period. The interest can be determined using the formula:

Interest = Principal imes rate imes time

In this case:

Principal = $150,000

Annual Interest Rate = 13%

Time = 9 months (9/12 of a year)

Firstly, we transfrom the annual interest rate into a monthly interest rate and then apply it to the 9 months:

Interest = $150,000 imes 0.13 imes (9/12)

Following the calculations to two decimal places:

Interest = $150,000 imes 0.13 imes 0.75 = $14,625

The total maturity value is found by adding the principal to the interest:

Maturity Value = Principal + Interest

Maturity Value = $150,000 + $14,625

Maturity Value = $164,625

Round to the nearest dollar:

Maturity Value = $164,625

Answer:

Please see attachment

Explanation:

Please see attachment

Answer:

d) $48.36

Explanation:

For computing the intrinsic value, first we have to compute the cost of equity by using CAPM Model which is shown below:

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 7% + 1.4 × (12.5% - 7%)

= 7% + 1.4 × 5.5%

= 7% + 7.7%

= 14.70%

Now the intrinsic value would be

In this question, we apply the Gordon model which is shown below:

= Next year dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)

where,  

Current year dividend

= $3 + $3 × 8%

= $3 + 0.24

= $3.24

The other items rate would remain the same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= 3.24 ÷ (14.70% - 8%)

= $48.36

The intrinsic value of Hampton Corporation's common stock as per the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is calculated to be $48.36.

To calculate the intrinsic value of Hampton Corporation's common stock using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), we first need to determine the required rate of return. We use the formula: Risk-free rate + Beta*(Market rate of return - Risk-free rate), in this case is 7% + 1.4*(12.5% - 7%) = 14.3%.

Next, we calculate the expected dividend in the next year, which would be the recent dividend paid grown by the growth rate. That gives us $3.00 * 1.08 = $3.24.

The intrinsic value is calculated using the Gordon Growth Model which is the expected dividends divided by required rate of return minus the growth rate. Hence, the intrinsic value will be $3.24 / (14.3% - 8%) = $48.36.

Therefore, the option d) $48.36 is the correct answer.

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Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following image.

Explanation  

Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in a single sheet with the formulas indications.  

Answer:

1. The margin for Alyeska Services Company: 27.37%

2. The turnover for Alyeska Services Company= 49.45%

3. The return on investment (ROI) for Alyeska Services Company = 13.54%

Explanation:

Please find the below for detailed explanations and calculations:

1. The margin for Alyeska Services Company = Net operating income / Sales = 4,900,000/17,900,000 = 27,37%;

2. The turnover for Alyeska Services Company= Sales / Average operating income = 17,900,000/36,200,000 =  49.45%;

3. The return on investment (ROI) for Alyeska Services Company = Net operating income/Average operating income= 4,900,000/36,200,000=  13.54%

Answer:

b. Acme debits Cash $1,930

Explanation:

Before passing the journal entry, first we have to do the calculations which his shown below

= Credit card sales - Credit card sales × fee percentage

= $2,000 - $2,000 × 3.5%

= $2,000 - $70

= $1,930

The journal entries are shown below:

Cash A/c Dr $1,930

          To Sales A/c $1,930

(Being cash is received after applying the fee percentage)

Answer:

8 years

Explanation:

Given: Cost of new machine= $500000.

           Annual cash inflow= $100000.

           Annual cash outflow= $37500.

First, we will calculate annual payback or cash inflow.

Annual payback= [tex](cash\ inflow - cash\ outflow)[/tex]

∴Annual payback= [tex](\$ 100000 - \$ 37500)= \$ 62500[/tex]

Now computing cash payback period.

Cash payback period= [tex]\frac{initial\ investment}{annual\ payback}[/tex]

Cash payback period= [tex]\frac{500000}{62500} = 8\ yrs[/tex]

∴ Cash payback period is 8 years.

When payback period is short then investment is more attractive.

Answer: (A) Business process management

Explanation:

 The business process management is one of the systematic and structure approach for monitoring, executing, designing and also control the process in the business management.

The main aim of the business process management is that it helps in improve the overall operation of the business management. It also control the workflow and also reduce the expenditure of the business.

It also achieve the various dramatic improvement by measuring the performance, quality and the cost. Therefore, Option (A) is correct.

Answer:

C. Observation of the counting of inventory.

Explanation:

Risk assessment procedures involve all the steps that represent the evaluation of procedures which are company specific and not individual item specific.

These assessments are done in order to ensure the accounting procedures are fair that are followed by the company.

Thus, the observation of counting of inventory is substantative in nature and not  investigating like, risk assessment test.

All other steps mentioned are part of risk assessment procedure.

Final answer:

Among the choices given for risk assessment procedures, observation of the performance of certain accounting procedures is least likely to be considered a direct risk assessment method as it is more about monitoring existing controls rather than identifying new risks.

Explanation:

The question asks which of the listed options is least likely to be considered a risk assessment procedure. In the context of a risk assessment process, which involves identifying and quantifying potential risks, certain procedures are standard. These include analytical procedures, inspection of documents, and observation of various activities such as the counting of inventory or the performance of accounting procedures. Among the options given:

Analytical procedures (A) are often used to understand financial data and spot inconsistencies or potential areas of risk.

Inspection of documents (B) is crucial for verifying the accuracy of records and identifying discrepancies that might indicate risk.

Observation of the counting of inventory (C) helps ensure the physical assets match the records, revealing potential risk of loss or theft.

Observation of the performance of certain accounting procedures (D) can identify inefficiencies or irregularities that may pose financial risk.

However, when comparing these options, observation of the performance of certain accounting procedures (D) is less a direct "risk assessment" method and more a procedure for ensuring that existing controls are being followed. It is more about monitoring than assessing new risks. Therefore, it is considered least likely to be a risk assessment procedure compared to the others listed.

Answer:

Compute the total budgeted selling expenses for February.

O $28,240.

Explanation:

$ 334,000  Sales

$ 20,040  Sales representatives a commission

$ 5,300    Sales manager salary

$ 2,900   Advertising expense

Total Budgeted Selling Expenses : $20,040 + $5,300 + $2,900 = $28,240

Answer:

$11,990,000

Explanation:

In the income statement, the total revenues and the total expenses are recorded.  

If the total revenues are more than the total expenditure then the company earns net income

And, If the total revenues are less than the total expenditure then the company have a net loss

This net income or net loss would reflect in the statement of the retained earning account.  

The computation of the net income is shown below:

= Gross income - employee salaries - operating and maintenance costs - depreciation expense -  insurance for manufacturing facilities

= $20,000,000 - $3,000,000 - $4,000,000 - $800,000 - $210,000

= $11,990,000

The declaration of a dividend initially reduces retained earnings and creates a liability. When the dividend is paid, the liability is removed, and cash is reduced accordingly.

On October 1, the date of declaration, the following journal entry is made:

[tex]\[ \text{Dividends Payable} \quad 3,000 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Retained Earnings} \quad -3,000 \][/tex]

On October 15, the date of record, no journal entry is required since the dividends payable have already been recorded on the declaration date.

On October 31, the date of payment, the following journal entry is made:

[tex]\[ \text{Dividends Payable} \quad -3,000 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Cash} \quad 3,000 \][/tex]

When a company declares a cash dividend, it affects the company's financial statements. The declaration of a dividend creates a liability for the company, which is the amount that the company owes to its shareholders. This liability is recorded in an account called Dividends Payable.

On October 1, Divine Apparel declares a $0.75 per share dividend on 4,000 shares of common stock. To calculate the total amount of the dividend:

[tex]\[ \text{Total Dividend} = \text{Dividend per Share} \times \text{Number of Shares} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Total Dividend} = \$0.75 \times 4,000 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Total Dividend} = \$3,000 \][/tex]

The journal entry on October 1 records the dividend as a liability (Dividends Payable) and reduces the Retained Earnings by the same amount, since the dividend represents a distribution of the company's earnings to shareholders.

On October 15, the date of record, the company verifies which shareholders will receive the dividend. However, this does not require a journal entry because the liability was already recorded on the declaration date.

Finally, on October 31, when the dividend is paid, the company removes the liability by debiting Dividends Payable and crediting Cash for the same amount, which is $3,000. This reflects the cash outflow to pay the dividend to the shareholders.

Answer:

Yes.

Explanation:

I would buy the bottle as anything can be asked for from the bottle and it will come true. Hence once the bottle is bought anything can be wished for and then the bottle can be sold off at a lower price than $1000.

Answer:

COGS= $65,100

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Using the information below for Singing Dolls, Inc., determine cost of goods manufactured for the year:

Work in Process, January 1 $ 53,800

Work in Process, December 31 38,900

Total Factory overhead 7,400

Direct materials used 14,400

Direct labor used 28,400

cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + allocated manufacturing overhead - Ending WIP

cost of goods manufactured= 53,800 + 14,400 + 28,400 + 7,400 - 38,900= 65,100

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

COGS= $65,100

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Sales Mix Unit Contribution Margin

Lawnmowers 20 % $32

Weed-trimmers 50 % $24

Chainsaws 30 % $45

Break-even point (units)= Total fixed costs / (weighted average selling price - weighted average variable expense)

Break-even point (units)= 4,944,500/ ( 0.20*32 + 0.5*24 + 0.30*45)

Break-even point (units)= 155,000 units

Each product:

Lawnmowers= 0.20*155,000= 31,000

Weed-trimmers= 0.50*155,000= 77,500

Chainsaws= 0.30*155,000= 46,500

Answer:

a.  Government should not intervene in the economy.

Explanation:

The concept of laissez-faire arose during the economic liberalism movement and promotes that the government should not intervene in the economy. According to laissez-faire, the main economic role of the government was to regulate and protect rights to private property.

Therefore, the answer is a.  Government should not intervene in the economy.

Laissez-faire is a principle of economic liberalism where government intervention in the economy is minimized, allowing individual economic interests to guide the market. It's best described by the statement: Government should not intervene in the economy.

The concept of laissez-faire is best described by option a: Government should not intervene in the economy. Originating from the French phrase that literally means 'let do', laissez-faire is a fundamental principle associated with economic liberalism, where the role of the government in the economy is minimized.

This economic ideology assumes that when individuals are free to pursue their own economic interests, the result is beneficial for society as a whole. In a laissez-faire system, the market is guided by the invisible hand of supply and demand, not by government intervention.

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Answer: (D) Factors B, C, D & F

Explanation:

Factor B: An increase in the quantity of money in circulation implies inflation. This will definitely cause a rise in the price level of goods and services in the nation.

Factor C: An increase in the labour force participation rate implies an increase in the quantity supply of labour. This implies an increase (general increase, not per labourer) in the price paid for labour (wages and salaries) in the nation.

Factor D: A decrease in production taxes paid by firms will encourage more production. This increase in supply of goods and services produced will result in an increased price level. The LRAS curve still won't shift. It will remain constant but along the curve, price level and quantity level will have increased.

On the other hand - for individuals - a decrease in income tax implies higher purchasing power (higher income-after-tax). This will in turn raise the prices of the goods and services purchased by individuals.

Factor F: Increased long run economic growth means increased productivity (or Gross Domestic Product) in the economy. This usually has the effect of raising inflation rate which directly impacts price level in the economy/nation.

For the wrong answers, here is the reason why they are wrong:

Factor (A)

A rise in the value of domestic currency, relative to other world currencies, does the damage of (or has the effect of) reducing the quantity of goods imported from this country by other countries. This will in turn reduce the quantity of goods exported by this country and hence, quantity produced will reduce in this country. This, instead of increasing price level, will reduce it.

Factor (E)

A rise in real incomes in trade partner countries does not mean that the extra real incomes will be used to purchase products from this country or to engage on foreign trade with this country.

You are welcome.

Answer:

Explanation:

a) For total net position :

Particulars                                                                  Amount

total net assets

revenue from rentals                                                        $ 800,000.00

personal service expense                    $ 380,000.00

Utilities expense                                   $ 63,000.00

repairs and maintenace respense      $ 47,000.00

depreciation expense-equipment       $ 15,000.00

depreciation expense-building            $ 50,000.00

interest expense                                   $ 40,030.00

uncollectible accounts expense          $ 5,000.00

supplies expense                                  $ 1,000.00             $ 601,030.00

increase in net assets                                                          $ 198,970.00

add net assets in beginning of the yr                                 $ 940,740.00

Total ending net assets                                                       $ 1,139,710.00

b) net investment in capital assets, net of related debt:

Particulars                                                                               Amount

Net capital assests                                                                 $ 900,000.00

land                                                                                           $ 325,000.00

equipment                                                                                $ 1,500,000.00

accumulated depreciation-equipment                                 $ 105,000.00

accumulated depreciation-buildings                                     $ 650,000.00        $ 1,970,000.00

less revenues bonds payable                                                                              $ 1,000,000.00

net assets invested in capital assets, net of related debt                                $ 970,000.00

c) For restricted net position

Particulars                                                                                    Amount

Restricted assets            

cash restricted fordebt service            $ 150,000.00

cash restricted for customer deposit  $ 23,000.00                   $ 173,000.00

liabilities payable from restricted assets

customers deposits payable                                               $ 23,000.00

restricted net assets                                                              $ 150,000.00

d) For unrestricted net position

Particulars                                                                                     Amount

net assets, unrestricted

total nets assets, end of year                                                     $ 1, 139,710.00

less net assets invested in capital assets, net of related        $ 970,000.00

less net assets, restricted                                                            $ 150,000.00

Net assets, unrestricted                                                               $ 19,710.00

Answer:

(A). It reinforces the company's culture and marketing message across a variety of platforms and creates a more efficient and effective means to impact customers' perceptions and behavior.

Explanation:

Coordination ensures resources are fully utilized and wastages are reduced. As such, it leads to efficiency and effectiveness in an organization.

Coordination in marketing ensures a consistent message across all the organization's marketing platforms.

By coordinating its corporate and strategic message with its marketing tools, Softbank Telecommunications and Internet Corporation, focuses on achieving its goals and objectives, while also communicating its values and culture to its customers in various target markets.

A coordinated message reinforces Softbank's culture and marketing message across platforms, creating an efficient and effective means to impact customers' perceptions and behavior.

A coordinated message has a positive impact on Softbank's target markets because it reinforces the company's culture and marketing message across a variety of platforms. This creates a more efficient and effective means to impact customers' perceptions and behavior. By using various marketing tools such as sales promotions, digital marketing, advertising, public relations campaigns, and guerrilla marketing, Softbank ensures a consistent and cohesive message that resonates with its target market.

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Answer:

The answer is d. -32 days.

Explanation:

*The before change cash conversion cycle = Days of inventory outstanding + Days of receivables outstanding - Days of payable outstanding.

in which:

Days of inventory outstanding = Average inventory / Cost of good sold x 365 = ( 15,012,000 / ( 68,735,000 x 0.85) ) x 365 = 94 days

Days of receivables outstanding = Average Receivables / Revenue x 365 = ( 10,008,000 / 68,735,000 x 365 = 53 days

Days of payable = 30 days

=> Before change cash conversion cycle = 117 days.

* The after-change cash conversion cycle is calculated with the same formula, however with estimated changes be applied in the formula as followed:

Days of inventory outstanding = Average inventory / Cost of good sold x 365 = ( (15,012,000 - 1,946,000) / ( 68,735,000 x 0.85) ) x 365 = 82 days

Days of receivables outstanding = Average Receivables / Revenue x 365 = ( (10,008,000 - 1,946,000) / 68,735,000 x 365 = 43 days

Days of payable = 40 days

=> After-change cash conversion cycle = 82 + 43 - 40 = 85 days

=> Net change is 85 - 117 = -32 days

Final answer:

The net change in the Cash Conversion Cycle for Van Den Borsh Corp., after adjusting for inventory and accounts receivable reductions and the extended payment period to suppliers, is a decrease of 31 days which directly influences cash flows. This is computed by calculating the initial and new Days Inventory Outstanding and Days Sales Outstanding, along with the change in Days Payable Outstanding, and comparing the initial and new CCC values. The correct answer is option (B).

Explanation:

The Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC) measures the time taken between the outlay of capital and the collection of revenue from the sales of goods. It is calculated by adding the Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO), Days Sales Outstanding (DSO), and subtracting the Days Payable Outstanding (DPO). In this case, we need to first calculate these components using the provided information:

Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO) is calculated as (Average Inventory / Cost of Goods Sold) * 365. Days Sales Outstanding (DSO) is calculated as (Average Accounts Receivable / Total Sales) * 365. Days Payable Outstanding (DPO) is currently 30 days, since the company pays on the 30th day, and will become 40 days after they decide to pay on the 40th day.

Once we have the initial CCC value using the original inventory and receivables levels, we compute a new CCC value using the reduced levels. The net change in the CCC will inform us about the impact on the cash flows. Let's calculate each component:

Cost of goods sold (COGS) = $68,735,000 * 85% = $58,424,750

Original DIO = ($15,012,000 / $58,424,750) * 365 = 93.8 days (rounded to nearest whole day)

New DIO with reduced inventory ($15,012,000 - $1,946,000):

New Inventory = $15,012,000 - $1,946,000 = $13,066,000

New DIO = ($13,066,000 / $58,424,750) * 365 = 81.6 days (rounded to nearest whole day)

Original and new DSO are calculated using total sales and average accounts receivable:

Original DSO = ($10,008,000 / $68,735,000) * 365 = 53.2 days (rounded to nearest whole day)

New DSO with reduced receivables ($10,008,000 - $1,946,000):

New Receivables = $10,008,000 - $1,946,000 = $8,062,000

New DSO = ($8,062,000 / $68,735,000) * 365 = 42.8 days (rounded to nearest whole day)

Change in DPO = 40 days - 30 days = +10 days

Initial CCC = DIO + DSO - DPO = 93 days + 53 days - 30 days = 116 days

New CCC = New DIO + New DSO - New DPO = 82 days + 43 days - 40 days = 85 days

Net change in the CCC = New CCC - Initial CCC = 85 days - 116 days = -31 days. Therefore, the correct answer is b. – 31 days.

Answer: Option (E)

Explanation:

Vendor-Managed Inventory is referred to as the theory which is based and inspired by the assimilation in the supply chain management in association with the system ambulation. Vendor managed inventory is being utilized  under the inventory management in order to equip oneself with the effect of bullwhip effect .

Answer:

D. Re-order point = 26 days

Explanation:

Given,

Annual Demand, D = 2,080 units

Number of working days = 320 days

Lead time = 4 days

We know,

Re-order point = (Annual demand/Number of working days)*Lead Time

Re-order point = (Annual demand/Number of working days)*Lead Time

Re-order point = (2,080/320)*4

Re-order point = (6.5*4)

Re-order point = 26 days

Therefore, the answer choice is D.

As there is no maximum and average lead time and no replenishment stock, I exclude the safety stock from the re-order point calculation.