Answer: E) A and B only
Explanation:
Hemoglobin can be define as red color protein which consists of iron group in the red blood cells. It carries oxygen to all the organs of the body and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from all the tissues and organs back to the lungs so that the carbon dioxide get expelled out of the body. It helps in transport of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen). But does not help in clotting of blood.
Primary dentition does not include which type of tooth?
a. molar
b. premolar
c. canine
d. lateral incisor
Answer: b. premolar
Explanation:
The primary dentition consists of twenty teeth in total. Such teeth are also known as deciduous teeth. These teeth are lost when the permanent teeth erupt. In both up and down side of the mouth, the teeth are 2 middle incisors, 2 lateral incisors, 2 canines, and 4 molars. The premolars do not erupt in the primary dentition instead they appear in the permanent set of teeth.
In oogenesis, meiosis I occurs
A. In early fetal life.
B. At birth
C. Just before ovulation
D. After ovulation but before fertilization
E. After fertilization.
Answer:
The correct answer is A. In early fetal life.
Explanation:
Oogenesis is the process of formation of female gametes in the reproductive organ called ovary. In females oogenesis process starts even before the birth of the female. It starts in fetal stage when primordial germ cells moves from yolk cells to ovaries.
These germ cells are diploid and increase in number to millions by dividing mitotically. Developed germ cells called primary oocytes and during fetal stage they enters in meiosis I and gets arrested in the prophase I stage of meiosis I. This phase is then completed after the puberty takes place.
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) pleural spaces.
C) terminal bronchioles.
D) interlobular septa.
E) alveoli.
Answer:
The correct option is 'E': Alveoli.
Explanation:
The respiratory system consists of following passages:
When we inhale air from our nose it the air flows into nasal cavity from the nose where the nasal mucous acts as a filter of air.Next the air moves into pharynx where the air is passed into a tube called as trachea. The air is prevented to enter esophagus by a flap called epiglottis.
The air from trachea is then directed to primary bronchi into left and the right lung and then to secondary bronchi and then to tertiary bronchi, each acting as a branch of the preceding section. The tertiary bronchi further divide into bronchioles at whose ends sacs of thin membrane surrounded by blood capillaries are present. These sacs are termed as alveoli and it is at this place the transfer of gases occurs between air and the blood.
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the alveoli.
Explanation:The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are alveoli. The alveoli are tiny air sacs that are found at the end of the respiratory bronchioles, and they are surrounded by a network of capillaries. It is in the alveoli that oxygen is taken up by the blood and carbon dioxide is released.
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What are important guidelines to understand when choosing an
antibacterial agent for Acute Otitis Media?
Answer:
Acute otitis media (AOM) is an ear infection which occurs due to inflammation or infection of the area behind the eardrum known as middle ear.
There are few important guidelines to understand when choosing an
antibacterial agent for Acute Otitis Media stated as below:
1) To identify any history of acute onset, evaluation of signs and symptoms of middle ear inflammation, and signs of middle ear effusion.
2 ) Assessment of pain to recommend any antibacterial agent.
3) Prescription of amoxicillin (antibacterial agent) for most children whose dose should be 80 to 90 mg/kg per day.
4) Selection of different initial antibiotic a temperature greater than or equal to 39 degree Celsius other than amoxicillin .
Answer:
The important guidelines are:
Observe if the organism has fought the disease. Age of the patient. Presence of severe pain or fever. Signs of secretion.Explanation:
Every ear infection is called otitis. It is called otitis media when it reaches the middle ear region, where the eardrum, the tympanic chamber, the small bones of the ear and the ear tube (or Eustachian tube) are located, and it connects with the nose.
Most of the time, the body can fight otitis media. Observation is recommended only in cases of (1) children aged 6 to 23 months with moderate ear pain for less than 48 hours and fever below 39 ℃ and (2) children aged 24 months with moderate pain in one or more both ears for less than 48 hours and fever below 39 ℃.
Symptoms may be eased with painkillers, but consult your pediatrician for children and adolescents, as some medications should not be given under certain conditions.
Antibiotics should be judicious to avoid bacterial resistance, but a specialist may recommend when severe pain or fever exceeds 39 ℃. Children under 6 months of age are often applying for antibiotics before the observation time, but only the specialist may indicate. Normally, in 2 or 3 days the fever subsides, but hearing may require more time to return to normal.
Although there are cases of observation, it is important to be aware of the evolution of the condition, because if the infection is not treated there may be a total loss of hearing.
When hearing loss does not regress, it is recommended to investigate for signs of retained secretion behind the middle ear. If present, it needs to be surgically removed through a small incision in the eardrum, as it may become the focus of other episodes of infection or impair hearing.
The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the:
a. nasopharynx.
b. oropharynx.
c. laryngopharynx.
d. sphenopharynx.
The pharynx is divided into three sections: nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The middle section, the oropharynx, is the part that is located behind the mouth and serves as a passageway for both food and air.
Explanation:The oropharynx is the anatomical division of the pharynx lying behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below. The pharynx is divided into three sections: the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx. The central section is the oropharynx, which acts as a route for both air and food. It starts from the end of the nasopharynx, extends to the hyoid bone level, and is continuous below the laryngopharynx. When we swallow, the food moves from the mouth into the oropharynx and then into the esophagus.
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Cardiac output is determined by multiplying stroke volume and heart rate.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The amount of blood that the heart pumps per minute through the circulatory system is called the cardiac output.
Stroke volume is the amount of blood that pushed out of the ventricle in one contraction or one beat.
The cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the number of heartbeats per minute (heart rate) and the stroke volume.
Thus, cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke volume. The value of cardiac output is expressed as litre/minute.
The length of the pharynx is about _________ cm.
a. 3.5
b. 8.5
c. 12.5
d. 17.5
Answer:
The correct answer is c. 12.5
Explanation:
Human pharynx is about 12.5 cm long and is divided into three parts nasopharynx, oropharynx and laryngopharynx. It starts from behind the nose joins to the food pipe(oesophagus). It provide passage for food and air.
Nasopharynx: It makes the upper part of pharynx which connects nose to mouth. Nasopharynx is separated from oropharynx by a soft palate present behind the nose. Nasopharynx helps in breathing.
Oropharynx: The middle part of pharynx is called oropharynx. Our oral cavity descends into it and tonsils are present either side of it. It helps in movement of food from mouth to oesophagus.
Laryngopharynx: It is the lower part of pharynx and opens into the food pipe and it also guide air into the larynx.
In steroid synthesis the rate limiting step is the side chain cleavage and this step is affected by the group of enzymes known as
A. Aromatase.
B. Desmolase.
C. Oxido-reductase.
D. Sulfatase.
E. Inolase.
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Cholesterol desmolase, also known as side-chain cleavage enzyme catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol into pregnenolone, which is the limiting step in steroid synthesis.
This enzyme is of the family cytochrome P450, the specific gene for this enzyme is CYP11A1.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Desmolase
The Red Blood Cell lifespan in circulation is between 80 and 120 days.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is a. True
Explanation:
The red blood cells in humans are originated in bone marrow and are called erythrocytes. It's main function is to carry oxygen to the tissue. It has biconcave shape. It contains a protein named hemoglobin which can bind to oxygen present in the lungs and carry to other organs of the body.
Red blood cells lack nucleus and is produced by a process called erythropoiesis in bone marrow. In this stem cells converts into erythrocytes with in 7 days and released into circulation where it lives about 80-120 days after that they are destroyed in spleen by spleenic macrophages.
Tonsils
a. increase in size in adults
b. are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities
c. provide protection against bacteria
d. contain red pulp and white pulp
e. are not functional in children
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
The tonsils are defined as a pair of soft tissue masses which are present at pharynx.
Tonsils are made up of tissue lymph nodes having a covering of mucosa.
The tonsils being a part lymphatic system plays very important role to fight infections and provide protection against any bacteria.
Tonsils reacts in a very different manner when comes in contact of infection or bacteria that is by changing its size and get swell.
Infection of tonsils is called tonsillitis and are the first line of defense by the body in response to external pathogens. Symptoms of tonsillitis involves sore throat , red and swollen tonsils, and high temperature. Diagnosis include prescription by doctor with a general examination.
Hence, the correct option option is C.
In primary hyposecretion of thyroid hormones
A. Levels of thyroid hormones in the blood decrease
B. Levels of TRH in the blood decrease.
C. Levels of TSH in the blood decrease.
D. All of the above are true.
E. None of the above is true
Answer:
A. Levels of thyroid hormones in the blood decreases.
Explanation:
Hyposecretion means too little hormone levels. It can be primary hyposecretion which is due to damage to the gland or it can be secondary hyposecretion which is due to deficiency of tropic hormones.
Tropic hormones: If a hormone produced from one endocrine gland acts on another endocrine gland as their target then we call such hormones as Tropic hormones.
For example, Hypothalamus produces the TRH i.e. thyrotropin releasing hormone which stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce TSH i.e. thyroid stimulating hormone. Here both TRH and TSH are examples of tropic hormones. TRH is produced by hypothalamus and stimulate pituitary gland, similarly TSH is produced by pituitary gland and acts on thyroid gland to stimulate the release of T3 and T4.
In case of primary hyposecretion, there can be damage of the thyroid gland which may result in decreased levels of T3 (triodotyronine) and T4 (tetraiodothyronine) in the blood, but there is no change in the tropic hormone levels i.e. TSH or TRH levels.
Hypothyroidism is mainly due to deficiency of iodine in the diet or damage to the thyroid gland.
Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include
A) decreased numbers of T helper cells.
B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections.
C) B cells less responsive.
D) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens.
E) all of the above
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include:__, would be, D: T cells become less responsive to antigens.
Explanation:
The immune system is vital for keeping us alive, as it is the one that will confront foreign organisms by attacking them when they try to invade our bodies. However, just like the human body ages, and its functions start to ebb with time, so does the systems; and the immune system is no different to this. Although it has been proven that the number of B and T lymphocytic cells does not decrease as a person ages, it has been shown that especially T cells become less responsive towards antigens, and if they do respond, then it is at a much slower pace than when a person is in their young-adult stage of life. This is why seniors can become sick much more often, and much more easily, than other adults, or even children.
Final answer:
Changes in the immune system that accompany aging, also known as immunosenescence, include decreased numbers of T helper and cytotoxic T cells, B cells becoming less responsive, and T cells becoming less responsive to antigens. The correct answer is E) all of the above.
Explanation:
The question pertains to changes within the immune system due to the aging process, a phenomenon known as immunosenescence. As we age, our immune system's efficacy naturally declines, starting around the age of 50. This leads to several changes, including:
Decreased numbers of T helper cells, which are integral for orchestrating the immune response.
A reduction in the number of cytotoxic T cells that respond to infections.
B cells becoming less responsive to pathogens, compromising the humoral immune response.
T cells that become less responsive to antigens, affecting cell-mediated immunity.
Therefore, the correct answer that encapsulates all the changes mentioned in the immune system with aging is E) all of the above.
If a demineralization area (white spot lesion) on the enamel of a tooth is not treated, it will develop into a cavity.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
The correct answer will be-true.
Explanation:
Tooth cavity is the breakdown of the teeth due to the prolonged accumulation of the bacteria in the plaque.
The metabolically active bacteria in plaque causes demineralization in the sub-surface of the enamel in the smooth surface of the teeth. This is known as white spot lesion.
If this white spot lesion is not corrected or treated may lead to cavitated caries lesion or cavity in the teeth. This cavity can cause pain in the teeth and associated problems.
Thus, the option true is the correct answer.
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Tooth decay is the damage to the surface of the tooth due to the production of acids by the bacteria present in the mouth. Tooth decay may lead to the formation of a yellow to black colored cavity.
The formation of a chalky white spot lesion is the earliest sign of the demineralization of the enamel. If this lesion is not treated, the enamel continues to demineralize and can lead to the formation of a cavity.
The area where two teeth are touching is known as the _________ surface.
A. Abutment
B. Proximal
C. Central
D. Lingual
Answer:
The correct answer is B. Proximal
Explanation:
Tooth have five surfaces distal, facial, Incisal, Lingual and mesial. Mesial surface is the tooth surface which is present towards the front portion and lingual surface towards back portion of mouth.
So the area where mesial surface of one tooth touches the lingual surface of another tooth is called proximal surface. There is a point where the two teeth that are adjacent touches each other called contact point of proximal surface. It becomes wider due to chewing and grinding with time.
The term for the area where two teeth touch each other is the 'Proximal' surface. This refers to the sides of the teeth that are nearest to each other in the dental arch.
Explanation:The Proximal surface is the place where two teeth come together. The term 'proximal' is used in dental terminology to refer to the surfaces of the teeth that are closest to each other in the arch (the curved structure of the upper or lower set of teeth). Specifically, these are the surfaces that you can't see when you look directly at the teeth in a mirror - they're between the teeth. So, to simplify, the proximal surface of a tooth is the side that touches the next tooth.
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Occlusion of which of the following would primarily damage the left ventricle?
a. circumflex artery
b. pulmonary artery
c. right marginal artery
d. coronary sinus artery
e. right coronary artery
Answer:
a. circumflex artery
Explanation:
Circumflex artery -
This artery branches in the left coronary artery and supplied the most of the left atrium , i.e. the lateral free walls of left atrium and part of the anterior papillary muscle .
This artery give a variable number of the left marginal branches in order to supply the left ventricle .
The largest branch is the terminal branch .
The occlusion of the circumflex artery can lead to the damage of the left ventricle .
How does Chinese music sound different from the music you listen
to?
Answer:
In general Asian music, but most particularly Chinese, has called the attention of westerners because of the sensed differences with the music that we are accostumed to listen to in the west. This is why, when we go into a restaurant that is Asian, and we hear the tunes being played, we become aware of how different they sound from what we are accustomed to.
There are several reasons for why this happens, but the most important of all is the difference in the scale system that Chinese music composers use, versus ours. While in the west we use a 7-note scale system, most Asian music, and most particularly Chinese music, use what is known as the pentatonic, or 5-note scale.
Also, Chinese music is usually played with solo instruments, or very small ensembles, not how it is done in the west, and the emphasis tends to be on certain types of wind instruments such as zheng, and also on cymbals and gongs, which give this type of music a very peculiar characteristic.
These are only a few of the reasons why Chinese music may sound so different to what western people are used to.
Standardized 1RM testing is contraindicated for children under 12 years of age.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False
Explanation:
The one repetition maximum or (1RM) test is a test which is used to measure the strength capacity of the individuals typically in a non-laboratory environment. It is define as the maximum weight that an individual can lift only with one repetition and with the use of the correct technique. This is basically done to check the strength capacities, strength imbalances and also to evaluate the effectiveness of a particular training programmes.
It can be tested on large varieties of populations that actually range from children aged 6 years and more, middle aged patients those are suffering from coronary heart disease.
What are the cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system?
Answer:
The answer to the question: What are the cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system? would be: Langerhan cells, which are the resident immune skin cells, but studies have also shown the presence of other immune cells on the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum, mainly T lymphocytes, especially CD8+.
Explanation:
Given the huge importance of the skin as the most important barrier between the human vunerable body, and the outer environment, especially as the barrier against invading microorganisms that could destroy the body, it is almost expected that this huge organ should count with its own resident system of immunity. And this has been found in several studies. At first, it was believed that the cells responsible for immunity on the skin, were the cells of Langerhans, but now, it is known that although these are the resident immune cells par excellence, there are also T lymphocytes, mainly CD8+ that also patrol between the stratum basale and stratum spinosum of the skin.
This is a cardiac glycoside which affects the electrical and mechanical actions of the heart which increases contractility.
a. beta adrenergic blocker
b. calcium channel blocker
c. digitalis
d. ACEi
Answer:
The correct answer is option - C. digitalis.
Explanation:
Cardiac glycosides are the organic compounds that help in increasing the rate of contraction and output of force of the heart. The mechanism of these compounds acts on the sodium-potassium pump of cells.
Digitalis is the cardiac glycoside that is used in heart-related problems and regulates the rhythm of heart rate. These are advised to give to provide with ACEi for blood pressure regulation in the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option - C. digitalis.
Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A) perforated capillaries.
B) sinuses.
C) discontinuous capillaries.
D) vasa vasorum.
E) fenestrated capillaries.
Answer:
The correct answer is E) fenestrated capillaries
Explanation:
Capillaries with perforated linings are called fenestrated capillaries. These capillaries are found in those tissues where molecules are require to be exchanged continuously between the tissue and the blood like in kidney, endocrine gland and small intestine.
These capillaries plays important role in secretion and absorption because they are more permeable than continuous capillaries and helps in the movement of large molecules across it. These capillaries have diameter between 70-80 nm.
Fenestrated capillaries which are present in glomerulus of kidney helps in filtration of waste product from the blood. In intestine these capillaries helps in absorbing the nutrient in the body.
Discontinuous capillaries are capillaries with a perforated lining that have gaps between the cells lining the blood vessels. This allows for the passage of larger molecules like proteins and cells.
Explanation:Discontinuous capillaries are capillaries with a perforated lining, which means they have gaps between the cells that line the blood vessels. These gaps allow for the passage of larger molecules like proteins and cells. Fenestrated capillaries, on the other hand, have small pores or openings in their lining, but no significant gaps. Sinuses are large, open spaces within tissues or organs. Perforated capillaries and vasa vasorum are not recognized terms in the context of blood vessels.
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What is the mechanism by which the kidney forms a dilute urine? What is the mechanism by which the kidney forms a concentrated urine?
Answer:
The mechanism of by which kidney forms dilute or concentrated urine is based on the amount of ADH( Antidiuretic hormone) present in the blood. Collecting duct have receptors for the binding of ADH hormone.
Formation of concentrated Urine:
When the ADH hormone binds to the receptors present on the cells of collecting duct it open the water channels present on it. Once the water channel is opened the duct becomes permeable to water and reabsorption of water takes place in the body making urine concentrated.
Formation of diluted urine:
When ADH is not secreted in the blood, the collecting duct remains impermeable to water molecules which results in production of diluted urine. This happens when blood contains sufficient water.
Explain how the epithelium in each of the following regions of the respiratory tract is adapted so its structure follows its function.
a. Nasal cavity:
b. Bronchiole:
c. Alveolus:
Explanation:
a. Nasal cavity: the epithelium in this zone is meant to provide a physical barrier to the invasion of microorganism or particles, it also secretes and remove mucus and foreign particles, these epithelial cells are also involved in the igE producing process (perpetuating allergic responses. The nose is the first barrier to the air that enters our body, that's why the epithelial cells in this zone focus in filtering foreign particles.
b. Bronchiole: epithelium is ciliated and no ciliated, it becomes cuboidal in smaller passages as it continues to branch. The no ciliated cells, also known as club cells are the ones that produce surfactant. Since bronchioles are passages to direct the air to the alveoles epithelial cells in this zone have adapted to go from larger branches to smaller ones to reach the alveoli.
c. Alveolus: it's composed of two types of cells, type one, that constitute the air-blood barrier and type two, cells that produce surfactant to reduce surface tension to keep the alveolus shape when breathing. Since alveoli's function is to allows oxygen/carbon dioxide to move between bloodstream the epithelial cells in this organ evolved to cover this job.
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The epithelial tissues in the respiratory tract's nasal cavity, bronchiole, and alveolus are structured to facilitate capturing dust, regulation of air flow, and gas exchange respectively.
Explanation:The epithelium in the respiratory tract is perfectly structured to facilitate its function. a. In the nasal cavity, the epithelium is ciliated and mucus-secreting, it traps dust particles and other foreign matter and also warms the air entering the body. b. The bronchiole epithelium contains smooth muscle. This smooth muscle allows them to constrict and dilate to regulate the amount of air flow. c. The alveolus is lined with simple squamous epithelium, which is extremely thin to allow for the efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
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Which of the following crystals are the most resistant to demineralization and decay?
a. hydroxyapatite
b. fluoroapatite
c. calcium apatite
d. lipid apatite
Answer:
b. fluoroapatite
Explanation:
Fluorapatite -
It is a mineral of phosphorous , with the formula of Ca₅(PO₄)₃F ( calcium fluorophosphate ) .
It is a crystalline hard solid , and the pure mineral does not have any color .
Along with hydroxylapatite , it can be the component of enamel of the tooth .
It is found in shark's and other fishes teeth and present in fluoride exposed human teeth .
Due to the presence of fluorapatite , it does not allow the tooth to decay .
The secretion of most hormones is controlled by a positive feedback system.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The secretion of most hormones is controlled by a positive feedback mechanism system:___, would be, B: false.
Explanation:
The production of hormones, and their activities, is a very strictly controlled one. Because of the functions they perform, which is to stimulate organ activities, in order to fulfill a duty, sometimes the release of them can become too much, and if this happened, problems could also arise. This is why, most hormonal mechanisms in the human body are kept on what is known as a negative-feedback loop, with a very few exceptions. As such, almost all hormonal production processes will stop once a certain level has been reached, and the organs themselves will send off messages to the producing ones to stop. This what is known as the negative mechanism loop, and it is why the assumption in this question is wrong.
Some hormones act through cell membrane receptors that stimulate adenylate cyclase activity and production of _____________.
Answer:
The answer to fill in the blank in this question: Some hormones act through cell membrane receptors that stimulate adenylate cyclase activity and production of:____, would be: cAMP.
Explanation:
In the process of hormonal regulation of cells there are two ways in which this can happen: direct activation of DNA inside a cell through steroid hormones, who do not need any kind of mediators to enter the cytoplasm of a cell and activate its genetic material, or indirect activation, which is the common way for non-steroidal hormones, such as epinephrine. In this second scenario a hormone will reach the cell and lock onto a receptor on the plasma membrane. The effect is that a G-protein, which is adjacent to the receptor, activates the second-messenger system, meaning that the activity the hormone came to initiate, will depend on these mediators. the G-protein will then activate adenylate cyclase, which in turn will activate ATP and transform it into cAMP. It is cyclic AMP (cAMP) which will finally relay the original message sent through the hormone, to the genetic material of the cell.
All of the following are involved in male sexual differentiation during early development except
a) Mullerian inhibiting hormone
b) Testosterone
c) Dihydrotestosterone
d) Sex-Determining Region of the Y (SRY)
e) Progesterone
Answer:
The correct answer is E.
Explanation:
During fetal development, Müllerian inhibiting hormone produced by Sertoli cells of the testes of a XY fetus prevents Müllerian duct to keep developing into fallopian tubes and uterus.
Testosterone stimulates Wolffian duct to evolve into spermatic ducts, ejaculatory ducts and seminal vesicles.
Dihydrotestosterone production is stimulated by the testes and has a key role during internal and external genitalia maturation.
SRY gene produces a protein that binds to DNA and directs the development of the gonad into testes.
All of the options are involved in male sexual differentiation except for Progesterone, which primarily functions in maintaining pregnancy instead of sexual differentiation.
Explanation:All of the mentioned are involved in male sexual differentiation during early development except e) Progesterone. In the process of male sexual differentiation, Mullerian inhibiting hormone suppresses the development of female structures, while Testosterone and Dihydrotestosterone promote the development of male structures. The Sex-Determining Region of the Y chromosome (SRY) initiates male development by promoting the differentiation of the gonads into testes. Progesterone, however, is primarily involved in maintaining pregnancy and has no known role in sexual differentiation.
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The rhythm method of birth control
A. relies on timing intercourse to coincide with ovulation.
B. depends on the ability to reliably predict the time of ovulation, every month for the entire duration of time during which a woman does not wish to become pregnant.
C. is more effective than the pill in preventing pregnancy.
D. involves examining changes in cervical mucus composition following ovulation
E. is based on cyclic sperm production in the male.
Answer:
B. depends on the ability to reliably predict the time of ovulation, every month for the entire duration of time during which a woman does not wish to become pregnant.
Explanation:
The rhythm method of birth control -
It is one of the birth control method , with an average of 80 and 87 percent effective for the prevention of the chances of pregnancy .
Since , not every day of the month is equally fertile to get pregnant .
Hence ,
This method , depends on the ovulation period of the women , as during the ovulation period , the women is more expected to get pregnant , if the egg get fertilized .
Therefore , the women can get pregnant with the egg is fertilized during the ovulation period , but the chances of pregnancy apart from the ovulation period is very low.
Part E Which of the following is generally true within the human body? Which of the following is generally true within the human body? A person having a heat stroke has constant blood flow through the heart, but decreased blood flow near the skin and in the extremities. When a person is warm, blood flow near the skin and in the extremities increases. When a person is cold, blood flow near the skin and in the extremities increases. Blood flow near the skin and in the extremities only increases when a person is in a state of heat stroke. g
Answer:
The correct answer is option - 2.
Explanation:
When the body gets warmer of an individual, the homeostasis process starts working to regulate to maintain it the normal range of the body temperature.
When temperature rises in individual body react by increasing the flow of the blood at extremities which means to the end of the body or limbs particularly palms of hand and feet. It also increases the blood flow near the skin at the time of warm conditions. The blood flow takes the heat from within the body to surface to sweat evaporates and cools down the body.
Thus, the correct answer is- 2.
The secondary oocyte is transported through the uterine tube to the uterus by TWO mechanisms: name BOTH of them
Answer:
After ovulation the secondary oocyte enters into the uterine tube. The oocyte is transported through the tube into the uterus mainly as a result of smooth muscular cells of the tubal wall rhythmic contraction.
An additional mechanism to transport the oocyte are the cilia of epithelial cells of the uterine tube, which become highly ciliated short before ovulation because of hormonal influence.
This transport through the tube usually takes 3-4 days.
Give one example of how nurses can affect public policy in various
appointed positions.
Answer:
Although historically nurses have been taken as the bedside caretakers of patients, and the medicine distributors, the truth is that nurses, given their level of involvement in direct care, have become enabled to do much more than that.
In public policy creation, nurses also play a vital role, and they have a lot to give in the field of politics, precisely because they not only have professional formation, but also extensive research knowledge and also practice. This experience, and the extended education that nurses undergo, allows them to be able to intervene in the arena of politics, especially when it comes to public policy formation, on the field of healthcare.
For example, a nurse is very capable of becoming a great administrator, and even a legislator. So she could find herself in the position of secretary of health, or as a senator, or representative, and she would be able to promote public policy that favors other healthcare professionals in terms of working hours, compensation, working environment, working conditions, because she has experienced all those, but also because she has studied and prepared herself to know about all this.
This, and many other reasons, is why nurses can become very active in legislation formation and public policy formation.