The integrity of the medical record should be maintained by using which procedure?

Individualized passwords to gain access to the EMR

Leave open on the desk those medical records that need attention

Allowing original medical records to leave the facility

Leaving a post-it note on your computer so other staff may use your computer and password

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The integrity of the medical record should be maintained by using individualized passwords to gain access to the EMR.

Explanation:

By having individualized passwords, you ensure that medical records are more secure.

Answer 2

Individualized passwords to gain access to the EMR is used for maintaining the integrity of medical record.  

Explanation:

The confidentiality in the health record can maintain a good relationship between medical practitioner and the patient. Patient always needs privacy in their heath records. So to maintain privacy or to give proper security to the health information patient should give proper password to protect their EMR.

They should not share their password to anybody else. They need to give strong online password to their EMR. Medical practitioner should maintain a unique ID for individual patient so they can track their patient by their individual ID number.


Related Questions

The weekly oral dosage of anabolic steroids was measured on a sample of 20 body builders. A 90% confidence interval estimate for the average weekly oral dose of anabolic steroids obtained from these results was 152 mg to 194 mg. What is a correct interpretation of this confidence interval?

Answers

We are 90% confident that the average weekly oral dose of anabolic steroids for body builders falls between 152 and 194 mg.

Assessment of a woman in labor who is experiencing hypertonic uterine dysfunction would reveal contractions that are: A. brief. B. poor in quality. C. erratic. D. well coordinated.

Answers

Answer:

cC

Explanation:

Which of the following are commonly distributed by veterinary assistants in a
typical veterinary practice?

a. annual vaccinations
b. grooming products
C. surgical instruments
d. treatment protocols

Answers

A. Annual Vaccination

Veterinary assistants typically distribute annual vaccinations as part of preventative health care in animals. They are less likely to deal with grooming products, surgical instruments, or treatment protocols, option a is correct.

Among the options provided, veterinary assistants are commonly responsible for distributing annual vaccinations within a typical veterinary practice. Annual vaccinations are part of preventative health care in pets, protecting them from various diseases. In contrast, grooming products may be offered at a veterinary practice but are not a responsibility tied to veterinary medical assistance. Surgical instruments are typically handled and distributed by veterinary technicians or veterinarians who have sterilized them appropriately for procedures. Treatment protocols, which outline the care and treatment plans for animals, are developed by veterinarians and are sometimes conveyed by assistants, but the creation of these protocols is not within the assistant's purview.

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who was prescribed enalapril maleate (Vasotec) for treatment of hypertension. Which is appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's teaching?

Answers

If high blood pressure is not addressed, it can lead to major issues such renal disease, heart failure, blood vessel disease, and stroke. Completely inhale the pill. Do not chew, shatter, or crush it. This medication can be used with or without food.

What discharge instructions for a client having Vasotec?

After the first few doses of enalapril, patients receiving diuretic medication should be watched for signs of severe hypotension.

When a patient may experience extreme hypotension due to decreased fluid volume, heavy perspiration, dehydration, vomiting, or diarrhoea, it is important to regularly monitor them.

Therefore, dose, directions, side effects and do not change positions suddenly. is appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's teaching.

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Final answer:

When discharging a client prescribed Enalapril Maleate (Vasotec) for hypertension, the nurse must educate them on medication adherence, monitoring for side effects, the importance of follow-up, diet considerations including potassium levels, and appropriate aspirin therapy.

Explanation:

Enalapril Maleate (Vasotec) is an ACE inhibitor medication prescribed for blood pressure control. In educating a client for discharge, it's important to address medication adherence, potential side effects, and lifestyle modifications. Instructions should include taking the medication as prescribed, being aware of common side effects like cough or dizziness, and understanding the importance of follow-up appointments.

Advising on the need for a potassium-rich diet or potassium supplements if also taking diuretics like furosemide, which can lower potassium levels, is also essential. Lastly, the client should be informed about the importance of appropriate aspirin therapy and whether it is right for them in conjunction with enalapril and other cardiovascular prophylactic measures.

Home environment considerations, like avoiding substances that can elevate blood pressure, should also be discussed. Nurses should prioritize clients who are at high risk of medication-related harm by arranging enhanced support, such as post-discharge contact or follow-up visits. Recognizing and reporting any changes in health status, such as unusual fatigue or side effects, is crucial for preventing adverse events.

Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.

Answers

Answer:

Has no blood supply.

Explanation:

Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea has no blood supply.

Though transplanting tissues cannot be done from one person to another, cornea can be transplanted without rejection of tissues because it has no blood vessels.

Explanation:

The outermost layer of human eyes is Cornea. This is in the shape of a dome and the eye's front portion is covered. It is a major component for the purpose of focusing vision. It has Epithelium which is the outer portion of the cornea.  

Bowman's membrane is a layer that lies below the epithelium layer. Stroma, Endothelium and Descemet's membrane are the other parts of cornea. The transplantation of tissues from a human to another human is not possible.  

Cornea does not have blood vessel and hence it is possible for the transplantation of cornea from one person to another person.

For the past four weeks, Odessa has been feeling lethargic and worthless. Her friends are worried because she no longer shows interest in her normal social activities. It is MOST likely that Odessa is suffering from:

Answers

Answer:  The correct answer is:

______________________________________________________

               →  " major depressive disorder (MDD) " .

______________________________________________________

Hope this answer is helpful to you!

      Best wishes!

______________________________________________________

For the past four weeks, Odessa has been feeling lethargic and worthless. Her friends are worried because she no longer shows interest in her normal social activities. These are most likely that Odessa has been suffering from Major Depressive Disorder.

Explanation:

Depressive disorders are the very common psychological disorder that occurs both in men and women. It can make a wide variety of symptoms including feeling worthlessness, lethargy sense, and losses interest in activities that were once their favorite.

Also, including reduced interest in sexual activities, insomnia, either excessive or less sleeping, etc. Causes of depression include a prior family history of depression, substance abuse, and in some cases medical conditions.

Treatment includes antidepressants, psychotherapy, exercise, and some lifestyle changes.

During prenatal development, a particular organ or body part is most vulnerable to exposure to teratogens during the: a) critical period. b) vulnerability period. c) period of viability. d) period of the fetus.

Answers

Answer:

a) Critical period.

Explanation:

During the critical period, exposure to teratogens such as alcohol, medications, X rays, etc can affect an organ or body parts that are developing at a certain time during pregnancy. As the organs and body parts develop at different times of the pregnancy, there are different critical periods. Once that part of the body is developed, the risk of being affected by a teratogen is very low.

Final answer:

During prenatal development, the period when an organ or body part is most vulnerable to teratogens is the critical period, which is a specific development stage where organs are forming. Exposure to harmful substances during this time can lead to significant malformations, making prenatal care essential for preventing teratogen-caused birth defects.

Explanation:

During prenatal development, a particular organ or body part is most vulnerable to teratogens during the critical period. This is the specific time frame when each organ or part of the fetus is developing and is most susceptible to the potential damage caused by teratogens such as drugs, alcohol, and some maternal diseases. For instance, the critical period for the development of the ears and arms is around six weeks after conception. If exposure to harmful substances occurs during this sensitive time, there's a higher chance of significant malformations.

Furthermore, the amount of exposure to teratogens is pivotal—substances may not be harmful unless exposure reaches a certain level. Plus, genetics play a crucial role as well, both in terms of the fetus's genetic makeup and the mother's, which can influence the degree of resistance to teratogenic effects.

Taking the potential for major morphological abnormalities into account, it's clear that quality prenatal care is crucial for minimizing risks. Teratogen-caused birth defects during critical periods are, in some cases, preventable with the correct awareness and healthcare measures.

Which patient statement supports a diagnosis of narcolepsy? A. "My wife tells me i snore at night" B. "I sleepwalk several nights a week" C. "I have no control over when i fall asleep" D. "My legs feel funny, and that keeps me awake"

Answers

Answer: c

Explanation: narcolepsy is a condition which makes you fall asleep at random times. You have no control over it

Mr. Clark is prescribed 500 mg of acetaminophen TID and 30 ml of prednisone BID. Mr. Clark takes his first dose of both medications at 0800 hours. When would you administer the second dose of acetaminophen?

A. 0100 hours
B. 2200 hours
C. 1100 hours
D. 1600 hours

Answers

Final answer:

If Mr. Clark takes his first dose of acetaminophen at 0800 hours and it's to be given TID (three times a day), the second dose would typically be administered around 8 hours later, that is, 1600 hours.

Explanation:

The question asks when the second dose of acetaminophen would be given if Mr. Clark takes his first dose at 0800 hours and it's prescribed TID (three times a day). Prescriptions that require dosing three times a day are typically evenly distributed throughout waking hours. Therefore, this typically equates to approximately every 8 hours. If Mr. Clark takes his first dose at 0800 hours, the second dose of acetaminophen should be administered around 8 hours later which would be around 1600 hours. Hence, the answer is D. 1600 hours.

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what is the minimum hot holding temperature requirement for baked potatoes

Answers

57 degree Celsius or 135 F is the minimum hot holding temperature for baked potatoes.

Explanation:

Sweet potatoes, baked potatoes, cooked rice, cooked beans, etc are considered as potentially hazardous and hence they must be held at 135 degree F or 57 degree Celsius or hotter.

A restaurant setting food holding and food held before service has lot of differences. Steam tables or cold-holding units are not used in most of the child-care facilities. Cold foods are usually prepared and refrigerated in child-care facilities.

Whenever needed to serve children they are removed from the fridge and then served. The pH and water activity interactions in a food determine whether the food is potentially hazardous or not.  

Final answer:

The minimum hot holding temperature for baked potatoes is 63 °C or 145 °F. Higher temperatures are required if bacterial contamination (like C. botulinum) is suspected. After cooking, food should be immediately refrigerated between 0 °C and 7 °C to limit further microbial growth.

Explanation:

The minimum hot holding temperature for foods such as baked potatoes is 63 °C (or 145 °F) as per the USDA recommendation. This is because temperatures below this may allow for microbial growth, increasing the likelihood of foodborne diseases. Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium commonly found in soil-contaminated foods and produces a heat-labile toxin that can lead to botulism, a potentially fatal food poisoning.

Scenarios where potential contamination with the bacteria is present, such as home-canned foods, require higher heat treatment: killing C. botulinum endospores requires a minimum temperature of 116 °C (240 °F). These temperatures can only be met using a pressure canner, which is recommended for home canning of low-acid foods such as meat and vegetables. Heating to these temperatures makes made it an effective method for controlling microbial growth.

Furthermore, any botulinum toxin present in the food can be rendered nonfunctional by boiling the food for about 10 minutes. Even after proper heating, however, food should be promptly refrigerated at temperatures between 0 °C and 7 °C to inhibit any remaining microbial growth and to preserve the food.

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Jacob has clear symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and has trouble concentrating and stopping his impulsive actions. Jacob’s behavior resembles that of people with damage in the:

Answers

Final answer:

Jacob's behavior is indicative of ADHD, a neurodevelopmental disorder marked by inattention and impulsivity, linked to prefrontal cortex dysfunction. Genetics and environmental factors are implicated in its etiology with stimulant medications often being part of the treatment approach.

Explanation:

Jacob's behavior, which includes trouble concentrating and impulsivity, indeed resembles symptoms of individuals with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a person's difficulty in maintaining attention, executive functioning difficulties, impulsivity, and often hyperactivity, which is beyond what is typical for their developmental stage. While the cause of ADHD is not fully understood, research indicates that there may be a delay and dysfunction in the prefrontal cortex development and disturbances in neurotransmission, with a substantial genetic contribution and potential environmental risk factors.

Treatment typically involves behavioral therapies and the prescription of stimulant medications. Stimulant medications, paradoxically, may have a calming effect on individuals with ADHD. Comorbid conditions, such as depression or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), are also commonly seen in individuals with ADHD, adding complexity to treatment and management of the disorder.

You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is​ awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this​ indicate?
A. Damage to​ C-3, C-4, or C5
B. Closed head injury
C. Damage to his thoracic spine
D. Open head injury

Answers

Answer:

A. Damage to​ C-3, C-4, or C5

Answer: B

Explanation: because of it was an open head injury his skull would be split open and you would know that he had bleeding.

Parents of newborns often complain about being chronically tired because their infants' crying, feeding, and diaper changing interrupt their sleep. After many nights, they develop what is known as:

Answers

Answer:  The correct answer is:

_______________________________________________

                     →  " sleep debt " .

_______________________________________________

Hope this answer is helpful to you!

        Wishing you will in you academic endeavors

               — and within the "Brainly" community as well!

_______________________________________________

Final answer:

Parents of newborns often develop a condition called sleep deprivation due to interruptions caused by their infants' needs during the night. Sleep deprivation can lead to chronic tiredness and negative effects on health.

Explanation:

The parents of newborns often develop a condition called sleep deprivation due to the interruptions caused by their infants' crying, feeding, and diaper changing during the night. Sleep deprivation refers to a consistent lack of adequate sleep, which can lead to chronic tiredness and various negative effects on physical and mental health. It is important for parents to find strategies to manage their sleep and seek support when needed to ensure their well-being and the care of their infants.

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Ms. Steiner is a 23-year-old Caucasian teacher who has presented with symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), diagnosed by an upper gastrointestinal study. She does not have any cell changes since the GERD is a new problem. She is currently a smoker and tends to drink socially while smoking on the weekends. Which risk factor presents the greatest risk for her in developing esophageal cancer at a later time?

Answers

Alcohol consumption with tobacco use

Emily’s teacher sees that she is struggling in most subjects, has trouble understanding directions, and has problems with her adaptive functioning. The teacher is concerned that Emily has a(n):

Answers

Answer:  The correct answer is:  

______________________________________________________

          →  " intellectual disability " .

______________________________________________________

{Note:  if the answer choices are:

______________________________________________________

—specific learning disorder.

—communication disorder.

—motor disorder.

—intellectual disability.

______________________________________________________

→  Then the best answer—and correct answer—is:

______________________________________________________

                  →  " intellectual disability " .}.

______________________________________________________

    {Note:  This condition was formerly known as "mental r(e)tardation" ; however, several years ago, this condition was renamed:

                                   →  " intellectual disability ".}.

______________________________________________________

Answer:

The correct answer would be - intellectual disability.

Explanation:

Emily is struggling in most of the subjects and also found difficulty in order to understanding directions and not able to adapt functioning. All these symptoms are directly related to the intellectual disability.

Intellectual disability is a disability in which an individual is limited to intellectual functioning and adapting behaviors and many other social skills.

Thus, the correct answer is - intellectual disability.

Intellectual disability is a disability characterized by significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and in adaptive behavior, which covers many everyday social and practical skills. This disability originates before the age of 18.

A party where people ingest tablets and capsules from a bowl of mixed medications is commonly known as a

A. drug party.
B. prescription party.
C. chance party.
D. pharm party.

Answers

the answer is D. pharm party

After entering a client's room and introducing yourself, you review the client's medical record. The client's name is Elizabeth Jones, the same name as a client you took care of yesterday. What step should you take to ensure the patient you are treating is the same Elizabeth Jones referenced in the client's medical record?

A. Confirm the client's identity with a fellow home health aide.
B. Ask the client to repeat her name a minimum of two more times.
C. Call the client's daughter to confirm the client's name is actually Elizabeth Jones.
D. Check the client's wrist for a wristband with a patient number and/or bar code that corresponds with the client's medical record.

Answers

Answer:

d

Explanation:

because she need her treatment fast we cant wait there and ask her name for fifty times

Answer: D. Check the client's wrist for a wristband with a patient number and/or bar code that corresponds with the client's medical record.

Explanation:

In health care profession the client is provided with a identity so that the treatment can be done smoothly without any negligence or misinterpretation while handling the multiple patients at the same time.

According to the given situation, the patient wristband having the patient number can be match with the client medical record. This is most efficient way in identifying the client and learn about the medical case. It will help in going through which what treatment to which the client is gone through with and treatment which is required to be done to recover the client from the ailment.

It is the responsibility of the _______ to ensure the doctor's orders are written in a manner that is clear, readable, and easy to understand.

A. home health aide
B. supervising registered nurse
C. client's healthcare advocate
D. prescribing doctor

Answers

Answer:

supervising registered nurse

Answer:

B. supervising registered nurse.

Explanation:

A registered nurse is a professional of the science of medicine who was graduated from a nursing program.

The main job of a nurse is to supervise and be responsible of care delivered by other health professional like doctor. So, the nurse follows up all indications given by the doctor, and supervise that all it's ok. In other words, a nurse is like a "secretary", who works according to the doctor (boss) indications.

In this case, the correct answer is "supervising registered nurse" because she or he has the responsibility of constantly supervise that all indications are being follows as such. Also, option B is the most reasonable, because a home health aide, a client or the prescribing doctor don't have this responsibility.

You are playing soccer with some friends at a local field. During a sprint to reach the ball, one of your friends reaches to make an excellent kick and almost immediately drops to the ground. He is clutching his knee and can’t seem to stand. What injury has your friend most likely sustained, and how should you treat it?

Answers

ANSWER:

The knee injury is ACL or Anterior Cruciate Ligament injury. This injury occurs when the ACL which is the most important ligament of the knee tears completely.

EXPLANATION:

This can happen when the knee gets twisted or is bent too far. The player is unable to move because of the severe pain in the knee. The player can be helped by being assisted out of the field. Immediate relief can be given by applying an ice pack. However, a doctor needs to be consulted so that the right treatment can be provided.  

The most likely injury your friend has sustained is an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear or sprain. This type of injury is common in sports that involve sudden stops and changes in direction, such as soccer.

Immediate treatment for a suspected ACL injury includes the following steps:

1. Rest: Do not allow your friend to continue playing or put weight on the injured knee.

2. Ice: Apply ice to the knee to reduce swelling and pain. Ice should be applied for 15-20 minutes every 1-2 hours for the first 48 hours.

 3. Compression: Use an elastic bandage or compression wrap to help minimize swelling and provide support.

4. Elevation: Elevate the knee above the level of the heart to reduce swelling.

5. Seek Medical Attention: It is important to have the injury evaluated by a healthcare professional as soon as possible. They may perform a physical examination and possibly order imaging tests like an MRI to confirm the diagnosis and determine the severity of the injury.

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