Answer: The answer is A - "It does not matter what we think, the living will says 'do not resuscitate'."
Explanation:
A living will is a written, legal document which the patient uses to give instructions regarding his/her treatment if they become terminally ill. It includes what they patient would and would not want to be used to keep them alive, other preferences and medical decisions such as pain management, organ donation, if and when they would want to be resuscitated by CPR or by electric shock to stimulate the heart.
A Dr which means Do Not Resuscitate is different document from a living will. A DR states if your heart stops or you stop breathing the medical professionals are not to attempt to revive you in any way. To establish a DNR order the patient has to inform the doctor about his/her preference and the order will be written in the patient's medical record.
Somatic cells of roundworms have four individual chromosomes per cell. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in an ovum from a roundworm?
Answer:
2 chromosomes
Explanation:
The cell of an eukaryotic organism like roundworm contains the Nucleus, which harbors the genetic material embedded in the chromosome. The number of chromosomes of that organism is contained in each cell.
Somatic cells, also called body cells, are all other cells asides sperm and eggs, that form the tissues and organs of an organism. Somatic cells are usually diploid i.e two sets of chromosomes from each parent. In this question, the roundworm has 4 chromosomes in its somatic cell.
The reproductive cells or sex cells (sperm and eggs) of an organism always result from meiotic division of specialized cells.
Since meiosis is a kind of division that results in cells with their chromosome number reduced by half (haploid), it therefore means that the ovum and sperm cell will be expected to contain 2 chromosomes each.
This way, when fertilization occurs (sperm and egg fusion), the resulting zygote, which will eventually develop into an adult organism, will have 4 chromosomes.
What effect do aldehydes have on microbial organisms? Group of answer choices
They damage proteins and DNA.
They inhibit enzymes.
They disrupt membranes and enzyme function.
They damage nucleic acids.
They disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.'
They damage proteins and DNA.
Explanation:
Aldehydes damage proteins and DNA of microbial organisms. They typically inhibits the growth of microbial organisms by causing alteration to proteins and DNA.
They cause damage to proteins ans are used as disinfectants. The aldehydes generally cross link functional groups in proteins and short changes their structures. Formalin is one example that is used to arrest bacteria growth and it is an aldehyde.Learn more:
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Alleles for other genetic diseases also provide protection against malaria when only one copy of the allele is present. In what cell type would you expect these genes to be active
Answer:
The correct answer will be- red blood cells (RBC)
Explanation:
Malaria has proved endemic to the human species as it has killed the humans in large numbers and it has acted as one of the strongest selective force.
The malaria disease has caused the mutation in the genes in the red blood cells which carries the oxygen to different organs of the body. The mutation in the genes causes the circular shape of red blood cell to sickle-shaped cells which carry less oxygen to the organs.
The change in the shape of red blood cell provides resistance against malaria disease but it becomes a problem where malaria is not a problem.
Thus, red blood cells (RBC) is the correct answer.
In a genetic cross between aabbccddee and aabbccddee what fraction of the offspring will be homozygous dominant for all five genetic loci?
Answer:
None
Explanation:
The desired homozygous dominant genotype is AABBCCDDEE. To have an offspring with genotype "AABBCCDDEE", at least one copy of the dominant alleles for the genetic loci should be present in either of the parent. However, both the parents are homozygous recessive for all the five mentioned genetic loci and therefore, cannot have a progeny with homozygous dominant genotype "AABBCCDDEE". All the progeny of a cross between the two parents each with genotype "aabbccddee" would have homozygous recessive for all the give loci.
aabbccddee x aabbccddee = All aabbccddee
In a genetic cross between aabbccddee and aabbccddee, all offspring will be homozygous recessive for all five loci. There is no possibility of any offspring being homozygous dominant because both parents only have recessive alleles.
Explanation:The organisms in question have double recessive alleles for all five loci (aabbccddee). Therefore, when crossed, all of their offspring will likewise be homozygous recessive for all five loci. No offspring will be homozygous dominant since dominant alleles are absent in both parents. This is because an organism is homozygous dominant for a trait if it inherited a dominant allele from each parent. It's also important to note that each locus segregates and independently assort as adequately explained by Mendel's principle of random segregation. This exposes the offspring to a variety of possible combinations of the parent's alleles.
When crossing two individuals that are homozygous dominant for all five genetic loci, the offspring will be heterozygous for all five loci. Therefore, none of the offspring will be homozygous dominant for all five genetic loci.
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Surfactants work by Select one:a. coating the organism preventing interaction with its environment.b. blocking transport into the organism.c. blocking transport out from the organism.d. disrupting membrane integrity.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Surfactants are the complex amphiphilic compounds which reduce or lower the surface tension between the two states that is liquid-liquid or solid-liquid.
The surfactants arrange themselves in a state that their hydrophobic part is exposed in the air whereas their hydrophilic part is in the water.
The biosurfactants are produced by the micro-organisms which are considered superior emulsifiers as compared to the synthetic surfactants. Their amphiphilicity allows the insertion of the surfactant into the membrane which disrupts the integrity of the membrane.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Surfactants work mainly by disrupting membrane integrity. They lower the surface tension between two liquids or a liquid and a solid, enabling, for example, oils to be washed away. This is achieved by surfactants causing a breakdown of cell or organelle membranes, causing vital molecules and ions from inside to be lost.
Explanation:Surfactants work mainly by d. disrupting membrane integrity.
A surfactant is a compound that lowers the surface tension between two liquids or between a liquid and a solid. Surfactants can also emulsify oils, which enable them to be washed away. They achieve this function largely by disrupting the normal integrity of certain types of membranes, especially those in the cells of organisms. Their action leads to a breakdown of the cell or organelle membrane, resulting in the loss of vital molecules and ions from inside the cell or organelle.
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What are the formal charges on the sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) atoms, respectively, in the resonance structure that contributes most to the stability of the thiocyanate ion, SCN−? The possible resonance structures for the thiocyanate ion, SCN−, are There is a structure of a thiocyanate ion. It has a charge of minus 1 and consists of a carbon which has a sulfur and a nitrogen atom attached by double bonds. Both the sulfur and the nitrogen atoms have 2 lone pairs. There is a structure of a thiocyanate ion. It has a charge of minus 1 and consists of a carbon which has a sulfur and a nitrogen atom attached. The sulfur atom has 3 lone pairs and is attached by a single bond, while the nitrogen atom has 1 lone pair and is attached by a triple bond. There is a structure of a thiocyanate ion. It has a charge of minus 1 and consists of a carbon which has a sulfur and a nitrogen atom attached. The nitrogen atom has 3 lone pairs and is attached by a single bond, while the sulfur atom has 1 lone pair and is attached by a triple bond. Structure A Structure B Structure C Express your answers as integers separated by commas.
In the most stable resonance structure of the thiocyanate ion (SCN−), the formal charges on sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) respectively are +1, 0, -1. This distribution of charges satisfies the criteria for stability as it keeps the formal charges as close to zero as possible.
Explanation:In the thiocyanate ion, SCN−, the formal charges of sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) atoms that contribute most to the stability of the ion can be calculated by assigning each bond as if one-half of the electrons are assigned to each atom. Let's focus on the first structure with -1 on nitrogen, +1 on sulfur, and 0 on carbon. This distribution satisfies the criteria for the most stable distribution of formal charges because it keeps the formal charges as close to zero as possible, which is the preferred arrangement. In a resonance structure, the actual distribution of electrons (the resonance hybrid) is an average of the distribution indicated by the individual Lewis structures (the resonance forms).
Based on this, the formal charges on sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) respectively are +1, 0, -1.
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What structure is most likely found in both viruses and cells?
Answer:
The correct answer is- Proteins
Explanation:
Protein is the structure that is found in both virus and cells. The capsid of a virus is made up of many structural subunits of proteins known as protomers. This capsid makes the outer covering of viruses inside which the genetic material of the virus is enclosed. The genetic material can be DNA or RNA.
In prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells the proteins are produced by the translation process. These proteins are essential for cell communication, enzyme synthesis, membrane integration, metabolism, etc. Therefore protein is the structure that is most likely to be found in both viruses and cells.
The structure that is most likely found in both viruses and cells is Protein structure.
Protein:The only structure or component that a virus and a cell have in common is nucleic acid. The virus lacks all the other cellular structures, and without them, it cannot exist, thrive, and reproduce on its own. The protein capsid provides the second major criterion for the classification of viruses. The capsid surrounds the virus and is composed of a finite number of protein subunits known as capsomeres, which usually associate with, or are found close to, the virion nucleic acid. Thus, we can conclude that Protein structure are present in both viruses and cells.
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The energy to sustain normal daily activities is provided by
Answer:
Carbohydrates.
Explanation:
Carbohydrates are very essential food nutrients that meet out our entire cellular energy requirement. They play a special role of providing energy during exercise and are commonly found is grains (wheat, rice) , fruits, vegetable, milk products and beans. They make human being sharper and provide energy for all their metabolic process with in the body.
Carbohydrates are broken down into simple sugar molecules such as glucose, fructose, and galactose.
Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome.If she moves the repressor gene (lacI), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, we would expect the _____.repressor will no longer bind to the operatorlac operon will be expressed continuouslylac operon will function normallyrepressor will no longer bind to the inducerrepressor will no longer be made
Answer:
The correct option is lac operon will function normally.
Explanation:
The promoter region can be described as a region due to which transcription begins for a certain gene. Promoters can be present near to the gene for which they initiate transcription or they might be present several sequences away upstream.
The promoter region will still be able to initiate transcription several base pairs away hence the lac operon will function normally. The repressor will also detect the promoter and function normally.
Receipt of extracellular signals can change cell behavior quickly (e.g., in seconds or less) or much more slowly (e.g., in hours).
A.What kind of molecular changes could cause quick changes in cell behaviour?
B.What kind of molecular changes could cause slow changes in cell behaviour?
C.Explain why the response you named in A results in a quick change,whereasthe response you named in B results in a slow cha"
Answer:
A. Molecular changes such as extracellular signals on extracellular ligands can result in quick changes in cell behaviour. One example is insulin. Upon insulin binding on the receptor on the cell membrane, the cell release GLUT4 transporters (for muscle cells) to increase uptake of glucose.
B. Slow changes in cell behaviour can be observed for other lipophilic hormones or intracellular receptors such as glucocoortoid or estrogen which reacts with receptors in the cells.
C. Insulin is required to maintain a constant blood glucose level and hence levels of insulin has to be mediated in correspondence to the blood glucose levels. Fast acting signalling is thus required for homeostasis of blood glucose levels. Where for such lipophilic hormones such as steriods, glucocortoid, these hormones tend to have a longer lasting effect and hence results in a slow change.
A. Extracellular ligand signals can quickly change cell activity. Muscle cells release glucose transporters when insulin attaches to a cell membrane receptor.
B. Lipophilic hormones or intracellular receptors, like glucocortoid or estrogen, delay cell behavior.
C. Insulin levels must be regulated to maintain blood glucose. Glucose homeostasis needs quick signaling. Lipophilic hormones like steroids and glucocortoid create a slow shift.
What is cell signalling?Cell signalling refers to the process whereby a cell responds to substances that are found outside of the cell through signaling molecules that are found on the surface of the cell as well as inside the cell.
Extracellular signaling molecules are cues that are meant to send specific information to target cells. Some examples of extracellular signaling molecules include growth factors, hormones, cytokines, extracellular matrix components, and neurotransmitters.
The ability of cells to respond to cues coming from their surroundings and from outside the cell is facilitated in large part by intracellular signaling. Gene expression, mRNA splicing, protein expression, and protein modifications can all be modified by cells in order for them to respond to extracellular cues. Cells are able to sense their surrounding environment.
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A phospholipid bilayer with equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids displays a specific permeability to glucose. What effect will increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in the bilayer have on the membrane's permeability to glucose?
A. Permeability to glucose will stay the same.
B. Permeability to glucose will increase.
C. Permeability will decrease initially then increase as the bilayer fills with glucose.
D. Permeability to glucose will decrease
Answer
The correct answer is option B
B. Permeability to glucose will increase.
Explanation:
A phospholipid bilayer is a thin polar membrane comprising two lipid molecules. It regulates the diffusion of ions and proteins and is impermeable to most water molecules. A balances amount of saturated and unsaturated phospholipid regulates the permeability of glucose, allowing only a specific amount to pass through but when there's more unsaturation, permeability increases.
B: Permeability to glucose will increase is correct option.Increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipid bilayer enhances membrane fluidity. .
The phospholipid bilayer is crucial in maintaining cell membrane permeability.By increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids, the membrane's fluidity also increases because the kinks in the unsaturated fatty acid chains prevent tight packing.This increased fluidity allows membrane components, including glucose transporters, to move more freely, thereby enhancing the permeability of glucose.Thus, the correct answer is B. Permeability to glucose will increase.Blood types are determined by the presence of protein located on
Answer:
Red blood cells.
Explanation:
Our blood is made up of blood cells and plasma which is an aqueous fluid. Blood type is determined by the identifiers presence and absence which is present on the surface of red blood cells. These identifiers are known as antigens which helps in the immune system to identify its own red blood cell types.
There are 4 types of blood type:
A, B, O, and AB. These blood types are determined with the help of the antigen which is present on the surface of the blood cell and antibodies which is present in the plasma.
Which of the meninges is a delicate connective tissue membrane that clings tightly to the brain like cellophane wrap following its every convolution? a) pia mater b) meningeal layer of the dura mater c) periosteal layer of the dura mater d) arachnoid mater.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- A
Explanation:
Meninges is the outer membranous layer of the brain which plays an important role in the brain. Meninges help protects the structure of the brain, acts as a supportive structure and protect the CNS from mechanical injuries.
The structure of the meninges in made up of three layers called:
1. Dura mater: Tough outer layer present just underneath the skull which contains the vasculature of the brain. The dura mater contains two layers of connective tissue called: periosteal layer and meningeal layer.
2. Arachnoid Mater: Middle layer of the brain which is devoid of the vasculature.
3. Pia mater: thin inner layer of the meninges which is tightly adhered to the contours of the brain.
Thus, pia mater is the correct answer,
Which of the following features are common to transformation, transduction, and conjugation? (1) unidirectional transfer of genes (2) incomplete gene transfer (3) homologous recombination (4) meiosis occurring in the recipient
Answer: 1,2 and 3.
The following are common to transformation, transduction and conjugation.
1. Unidirectional transfer of genes.
2. Incomplete gene transfer.
3. Homologous recombination.
Explanation:
Transformation is the taking up of free DNA from the environment.
Transduction is the transfer of DNA by bacteria to a viruses.
Conjugation is the transfer of Plasmid or circular DNA through a tube between the cells. Incomplete DNA are transferred unidirectional .
Which of the following best defines an autotroph?
A. An organism that eats producers
B. An organism that breaks down dead plants and animals
C. An organism that makes its own food
D. An animal that eats other animals
An organism that makes its own food would define autotroph in best way as they can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide, or other chemicals.
What is an Autotroph?An autotroph or primary producer is an organism that produces complex organic compounds using carbon from simple substances such as carbon dioxide, generally using energy from light or inorganic chemical reactions. It obtains energy and nutrients by harnessing sunlight through photosynthesis or, more rarely, obtain chemical energy through oxidation to make organic substances from inorganic ones. Autotrophs do not consume other organisms; they are, however, consumed by heterotrophs. It examples are Algae, Cyanobacteria, Maize plant, Grass, Wheat and Seaweed, etc.
Therefore, (C) option is the correct answer.
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Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and frequently has periods where he can hardly breathe. The problem is the result of
a) inflammation of the bronchi.constriction of the trachea.
b) thick secretions that exceed the ability of the mucus elevator to transport them.
c) laryngospasms that occur in response to a toxic substance produced by the epithelial cells.
d) collapse of one or both lungs.
Answer: b) Thick secretions that exceed the ability of the mucus elevator to transport them.
Explanation: In cystic fibrosis the primary defect in ion transport leads to defective mucociliary action, and accumulation of thick viscid secretions that obstruct the airways. This leads to a marked susceptibility to bacterial infections, which further damage the airways. With repeated infections there is widespread damage to airway walls, with destruction of supporting smooth muscle and elastic tissue, fibrosis, and further dilatation of bronchi. The smaller bronchioles become progressively obliterated as a result of fibrosis (bronchiolitis obliterans).
Cystic fibrosis is the disease of the lungs, kidneys and liver. It resulted because of thick secretions that overextended the ability of mucus to transport them.
What is Cystic fibrosis?Cystic fibrosis is a disease that affects the mucus and the digestive juices of the respiratory and the digestive system of the body. The mucus and the other fluids become thick and sticky that resulting in the blockage of the ducts, tubes and other passages.
The blockage of the tracts by the mucus causes further bacterial infection and leads to the destruction of the air passages, smooth muscles, dilation of bronchi and many others.
Therefore, option b) thick secretion of the mucus resulted because of cystic fibrosis.
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In the 1950s, when Watson and Crick were working on their model of DNA, which concepts were well accepted by the scientific community?
a. Chromosomes are made up of protein and nucleic acid.
b. Chromosomes are found in the nucleus.
c. Genes are made of DNA.
d. Genes are located on chromosomes.
Answer:
Option (1), (2) and (3).
Explanation:
DNA is the genetic material of all the living organisms present on earth. The DNA contains the nitrogenous bases, pentose sugar and the phosphate group. DNA strands runs in the opposite direction and shows polarity.
Watson and Crick explain the structure of DNA based on the X ray diffraction produced by Rosalind. According to the structure, chromosomes are present in the nucleus and contains the DNA and wrapped around the proteins. The genes is considered as the functional segment of DNA.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1), (2) and (3).
When we say that a liquid has a high viscosity, we mean that itA) is runny like water.B) flows slowly like honey.C) is very dark in color.D) is very light in color.E) conducts electricity.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Viscosity is the state of how thick and sticky a liquid is. the lower the viscosity, the quicker the liquid flows, the higher viscosity, the slower the liquid goes.
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
This is becaus the word "viscous" means thick, or flows slowly
which would be the first thing in the body to attack bacteria
Answer:
Antibodies in the body would be the first to attack bacteria in case they enter our bodies
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If a cross between two strains produces 130 parental ditype, 10 non parental ditype and 100 tetratype asci in the progeny, waht is the genetic map distance between the two loci (without correction for undetected double crossovers)?
Answer:
A genetic map is a type of chromosomal map that shows the relative location of genes and other important characteristics. The map is based on the concept of linkage, which means how close two genes are on the chromosome, the mayor will be the probability that they are inherited together. Following the inheritance patterns, the relative location of the genes throughout the entire chromosome can be established.
Illustration
[A genetic map] is a map that shows the relative location of two genetic traits. And the way to determine this is to use the descendants of an organism and keep track of how many times two genetic traits specify here together, for example, hair color and eye color. The higher the percentage of the descendants that have both characteristics at the same time, the closer to the chromosome the genes responsible for the characteristic characteristics.
The blood-testis barrier:
consists of tight junctions between interstitial (Leydig) cells.
is the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules.
protects sperm antigens from exposure to the cells of the immune system.
all of these choices
Answer:
R/ Protects sperm antigens from exposure to the cells of the immune system.
Explanation:
In mammals there is a barrier (blood-testis barrier) within the seminiferous tubes formed by tight junctions between Sertoli cells that separates spermatogonias from primary spermatocytes. This barrier separates the seminiferous tube into two compartments, the basal and the adluminal. The basal compartment between the basement membrane and the tight junctions can be accessed by elements of the plasma and immune cells, while the second compartment is not.
Reversible lanes are marked with unique signs, signals and markings, such as_____.
A) a flashing yellow X, which means use this lane ONLY for a right turn
B) a solid yellow X, which means stay in the lane but slow down
C) a red X, which means the lane is closed
D) a flashing red X, which means to prepare to stop
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
The reversible traffic lanes are a regulatory tool/mechanism to control the traffic in rush hour where the directions of traffic are kept opposite to each other at a particular time of the day. So, symbolically they are represented by pavement markings along with special lane signals, symbols, and sign which are as follows –
a) Solid white line marking the edge of the pavement
b) Stop lines, crosswalks and parking spaces are marked by white lines
c) Symbols in white color
d) Single yellow line marks to highlight the left edge of one-way road and all divided road.
e) Yellow-colored marked curbs
f) Central lane marking arrow
Hence, option A is correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
According to the safety guidelines the roads that are closed is marked with red lines in order to let the people known that the road is closed and there is a reversible lane which should be opted by the people.
The reversible lane is a lane which is made in order to make travel in either directions. When there is a rush hour there is a a proper display of signals in order to show closed driving or turning.
There is a red X made on the lane when the road is closed and is not available for use.
The distal malleoli of the tibia and fibula serve as pulleys for the posterior tendons to increase the mechanical advantage of the respective muscles in performing inversion and eversion actions. True or False?
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Tibila and fibukla are the long bones present in the lower leg. Tibia is present inside and fibula is smaller and present outside. The malleolus is located ion the distal side of ankle.
The main function of the distal melleoli is the movement by the ction of tibia and fibula. They can be used for increasing the mechanical strength of the muscles. They also helps in the inward movement, outward movement, eversion and inversion action of the respective muscles.
Thus, the answer is true.
Two populations of mice exist on either side of a river. After a bridge is constructed across the river, the two populations come to resemble each other more.
What is the most likely explanation for this?
A) Stabilizing selection
B) Directional selection
C) Gene flow
D) Genetic drift
E) Nonrandom mating
Answer:
C) Gene flow
Explanation:
Gene flow refers to the movement of alleles between local populations. It results from the migration of individuals. Two adjacent populations can exhibit gene flow due to the mating between their individuals and can have significant evolutionary consequences as it does not allow the reproductive isolation of these populations. In the given example, the two mice populations are present on either side of a river. Mating between the mice of the two populations resulted in gene flow and maintained resemblance among their members.
A busy 45-year-old female executive has been diagnosed with diverticulitis. Her primary treatment is an increase in the fiber content of her diet. What effect will the fiber have on the diverticula?
Answer&Explanation:
Diverticulosis is a disease condition found in people of the age of 40, it is a conditions that involve the development of small sacs or pockets in the wall of the colon, inside the lower part of the small intestine. Diverticulitis worsens when there's diverticular bleeding and constipation.
The increase in fibre diet, softens the stool and promotes bulk in defecation. It also increases colonic contents and colon diameter.
A diet rich in fiber can reduce and heal diverticulitis bleeding by prevent inflammation.
The cholera bacterium Vibrio cholerae produces an enzyme toxin that chemically modifies a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion in intestinal cells. Stuck in its active form, the modified G protein stimulates the production of a high concentration of cAMP, which causes the intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of salts into the intestines, with water following by osmosis. An infected person quickly develops profuse diarrhea and if left untreated can soon die from the loss of water and salts.
What is the basic effect of the cholera toxin?
A.The basic effect of the cholera toxin is loss of specificity of the response of intestinal cells to a
B. The basic effect of the cholera toxin is premature termination of a signaling pathway.
C. The basic effect of the cholera toxin is signal amplification.
Answer:
C. The basic effect of the cholera toxin is signal amplification.
Explanation:
Cholera toxin can cause its symptoms by amplifying the signals responsible for intestinal electrolyte transport through the following process:
The toxin binds to a membrane ganglioside (a phospholipid with carbohydrate residues) in the secretory cells in the small intestine. After that, a toxin subunit penetrates the cell, causing permanent activation of a G protein.
G protein activates adenylate cyclase, which catalyzes the formation of cAMP (A type of secondary messenger, important in signal transduction in cells), responsible for activating protein kinases.
Proteins undergo phosphorylation, this process amplifies chloride ions (Cl⁻) secretion.
The flow of negatively charged chloride ions out of the cell causes positively charged sodium ions to follow them in the flow.
Then water follows the electrolytes to the lumen of the small intestine by osmosis, resulting in severe diarrhea.
The cholera toxin induces excessive salt and water secretion from intestinal cells, leading to profuse diarrhea, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance, which can be life-threatening if untreated.
The basic effect of the cholera toxin is to induce excessive secretion of salts and water from intestinal cells, leading to profuse diarrhea. This occurs through the modification of a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion, causing it to remain in its active form.
Consequently, the modified G protein stimulates the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) at high concentrations within the intestinal cells. Elevated cAMP levels trigger the secretion of large amounts of salts into the intestines, followed by the movement of water via osmosis.
This results in the rapid onset of profuse diarrhea, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can be fatal if left untreated.
Complete question : The cholera bacterium vibrio cholerae produces an enzyme toxin that chemically modifies a g protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion in intestinal cells. stuck in its active form, the modified g protein stimulates the production of a high concentration of camp, which causes the intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of salts into the intestines, with water following by osmosis. an infected person quickly develops profuse diarrhea and if left untreated can soon die from the loss of water and salts. what is the basic effect of the cholera toxin?
Which of the following is a characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Select all that apply.
a. More common in type 1 diabetes
b. Normal arterial pH level
c. Rapid onset
d. Absent ketones
e. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
Answer:
The answers are: a. More common in type 1 diabetes, c. Rapid onset and e. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Explanation:
These three factors are very characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis. Mostly the elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, that can be fastly detected with urine tests.
Pea flowers may be purple (P) or white (p). Pea seeds may be round (R) or wrinkled (r). What proportion of the offspring from a cross between purple-flowered, round-seeded individuals (heterozygous for both traits) will have both white flowers and round seeds? b. 1/2 c. 3/16 a. 1/16 e. 9/16 d. 3/4
Answer:
The correct answer is c. 3/16.
Explanation:
In the given question two traits being studied, the traits are flower color and seed shape.
This is a typical Mendel’s dihybrid cross. According to the question purple colour (P) and round seed (R) are dominant traits.
When heterozygous purple-flowered (Pp), round-seeded (Rr) individuals are crossed, four different types of plants are produced phenotypically in the ratio 9:3:3:1.Out of 16 offspring, 9 are purple flowered, round seeded pea plants, 3 pea plants are white-flower with round seed, 3 are purple- flower with wrinkled seed and 1 pea plant is white-flowered with wrinkled seed pea plant is produced.
The increase in volume of the muscle fibers due to the enlargement of its components is referred to as
Answer:
The increase in volume of the muscle fibers due to the enlargement of its components is referred to as hypertrophy.
Explanation:
Hypertrophy is about increasing the size of the transverse diameter of muscle fibers, it causes the muscle to grow in volume, due to the stimulation of the growth of muscle cells without cell division in the muscle. Hypertrophy occurs as a result of resistance training.
The processes of DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli are similar in some respects and different in others.
Select the THREE statements below that describe BOTH DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli.
Question options:
a.The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3' to 5'
b.The process requires a primer.
c.The mechanism of reaction is attack by the 5'OH group of the pentose on the a-phosphate of an incoming nucleoside triphosphate.
d.A specific region of the DNA is recognized and bound by the polymerase.
e.The direction of polymerization is 5' to 3'
The process includes its own 3' to 5' exonuclease proofreading mechanism.
Answer:
a d e are the options that describe BOTH DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli.
Explanation:
a)The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3' to 5'
d) A specific region of the DNA is recognized and bound by the polymerase.
e)The direction of polymerization is 5' to 3'