Answer:
The correct answer will be option- Meerkat with 36 chromosome pairs
Explanation:
Genetic diversity in organisms takes place by the process recombination which takes place during cell division through meiosis.
The process of meiosis takes place during the gamete formation in organisms. During prophase I of meiosis, the exchange of DNA between sister chromatids takes place mediated by the formation of the synapse between chromosomes.
If the number of chromosomes in an organism will be high then there will be more probability of the genetic recombination process in those organisms.
So the organism with a high number of chromosome pairs can have the maximum chances of genetic recombination and genetic diversity. Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
Overall, membranes seem to have a great deal in common, but on closer inspection it is revealed that membranes of different cells have unique properties. What is the primary component of membranes that gives membranes cell-specific properties?
Answer: Proteins.
Explanation:
Proteins are organic molecules made of amino acids which are arranged in a linear chain and joined together through a peptide bond.
Membrane proteins are classified depending on their location:
Integral membrane proteins are part of a cell membrane and can either penetrate the membrane or associate with one side of a membrane. Peripheral membrane proteins are transiently associated with the cell membrane.They perform many important functions:
Membrane receptor proteins: relay signals between the internal and external environments. Transport proteins: move molecules and ions across the membrane. Membrane enzymes: transform a molecule into another formCell adhesion molecules: allow cells to identify each other.Which turned out to be a hoax?
O
A. The Nariokotome boy
O
O
B. The Taung child
O
O
C. The Tyrkana boy
O
O
D. The Piltdown man
Answer: The Piltdown Man
Explanation:
Every other answer was not a hoax
Final answer:
D. The Piltdown Man turned out to be a hoax. It was a fabricated fossil that misled scientists about human evolution for decades, unlike the real fossil discoveries of the Nariokotome Boy and Taung Child.
Explanation:
The hoax referred to in the question is the Piltdown Man. This infamous archaeological forgery was considered a significant find when it was "discovered" in 1912 by Charles Dawson in England. It supposedly provided evidence for a European origin of human evolution, displaying both human and ape-like features. However, using the fluorine technique among other methods, the Piltdown Man was eventually proven to be a fake. This discovery was a set of bones altered and combined in a way to purposely create a seemingly transitional fossil between apes and humans, fooling the scientific community for over 40 years.
On the contrary, the other specimens mentioned, such as the Nariokotome Boy, also known as the Turkana Boy, and the Taung Child, are genuine and significant paleoanthropological discoveries. The Nariokotome Boy is a remarkably complete skeleton of a Homo erectus youth found near Lake Turkana, Kenya, which has provided invaluable insight into the early evolution of our genus, Homo. Similarly, the Taung Child is the first discovered fossil of an Australopithecine juvenile, which reinforced the idea that humanity originated from Africa.
Select the correct answer. David wants to improve the food shortage situation in his country. Which of these fields of biology should he study? A. pathology B. agriculture C. evolutionary biology
I think it is going to be agriculture
Mycorrhizal fungi are sometimes purposely introduced to new areas of land that are used for growing plants for commercial uses (e.g., landscaping, crop production, timber production). What would be the benefit of doing this?
Answer: The fungi help facilitate horticulture, agriculture and forestry.
Explanation:
A mycorrhizal association is a symbiotic mutualistic association between the land plants and the fungi. The fungus colonizes over the host plant roots and supplies mineral nutrients from the soil in return the plant receive sugars by the process of photosynthesis.
Thus the fungi will help in healthy growth of plants. Hence, facilitate in horticulture, agriculture and forestry.
Scientists use specific levels of organization in order to analyze the biosphere. The Everglades are a large area of subtropical wetlands found in Florida. A variety of plants and animals can be found in the Everglades, including Florida panthers, cypress trees, herons, and alligators.
Which level of organization is not seen in the Everglades?A) ecosystemB) community C) population D) biome
Answer:biome
Explanation
Answer:
Option D, Biome
Explanation:
A biome is an area that consists of varied types of plants and animals. Several abiotic factors such as temperature, soil, light and water are responsible in defining the life form living in any biome.
An ecosystem is different from a biome in a way that it envolves interaction between living and non living thing. A group of species is known as communities and population is total number of species living in an area.
hence, option D is correct.
A student is shown images of different reactions which question would help a student determine which reaction is a peptide synthesis reaction
A. Which image shows the disruption of the hydrogen bonds between Atoms in the molecules?
B. Which image shows the stabilization of the hydrogen bonds between atoms in the molecules?
C.Which image shows water as a product of the reaction between an amino acid in a car Bullock which image shows water as a product of the reaction between an amino acid and a carbonyl group?
D. Which image shows water as a reactant of the reaction between an amino acid in a carboxyl group?
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The formation of a peptide bond is a condensation/dehydration reaction because a water molecule is produced during the formation of the bond. This is the case for most biolgical polymer formation from their monomers (such as glucose monomers into starch). In proteins the carbonyl group (– COOH) of one amino acid reacts with the amino group (–NH2) of the next amino acid. The carbonyl group loses an –OH while the amino group loses a –H. The OH⁻ and H⁺ combine into a water molecule.
When Kate’s grandma leans over the crib with a toy in her hand, 8-month-old Kate grasps it and pulls on it. When Kate’s mom hangs a set of animals across the crib, Kate reaches up, grabs them, and pulls them down. Kate seems to be working on _______ for grasping and pulling.
Answer: a schema
Explanation:
The term schema was first introduced in 1923 by developmental psychologist Jean Piaget. Piaget proposed a stage theory of cognitive development that utilized schemas as one of its key components. Piaget defined schemas as basic units of knowledge that related to all aspects of the world.
A schema is a cognitive structure that serves as a framework for one’s knowledge about people, places, objects, and events. Schemas help people organize their knowledge of the world and understand new information. While these mental shortcuts are useful in helping us make sense of the large amount of information we encounter daily, they can also narrow our thinking and result in stereotypes.
For example, when a child is young, they may develop a schema for a dog. They know a dog walks on four legs, is hairy, and has a tail. When the child goes to the zoo for the first time and sees a lion, they may initially think the lion is a dog as well. From the child’s point of view, the lion fits their schema for a dog.
Various types of schemas exist. These include object schemas, person schemas (behavior, appearance, preferences, personality), social schemas ( be respectful, don’t eat garlic before a date, pay for your dates movie tickets), self schemas( for example future doctor, smart, hates vegetables) roles schemas, event schemas (professionalism, business suit, portfolio, handshake) etc.
Kate is developing her fine motor skills, particularly the Palmer Grasp and is preparing for the Pincer Grasp milestone. This also reflects cognitive development and the maturation of her prefrontal cortex, indicating an increase in goal-directed activity and social understanding.
When Kate's grandma leans over the crib with a toy in her hand, and Kate grasps it and pulls on it, Kate demonstrates the development of her fine motor skills, which include actions such as grasping and pulling. By 8 months old, infants like Kate improve their ability to reach for and grab objects, which is a significant aspect of their motor development. At this stage, infants are able to perform the Palmer Grasp, which involves the fingers and palm without the use of thumbs. The pincer grasp, a further development in fine motor skills involving the coordination of the index finger and thumb, typically emerges around 9 to 12 months, allowing infants to hold smaller objects more precisely.
Kate is also working on coordinating both internal desires and external actions to achieve a planned goal, such as obtaining a desired toy. This reflects the maturation of the prefrontal cortex and the beginning of a sense of social understanding and object permanence. Through these actions, Kate is not only developing her fine motor skills but also her cognitive abilities.
What are the first organisms to begin decomposition
Answer:
While in the later stages of decomposition mites, millipedes, centipedes, springtails, beetles and earthworms further breakdown and enrich the composting materials.
Which of the following statements about reinforcement is true?
a) Reinforcement is a type of natural selection.
b) Reinforcement increases the number of intermediate phenotypes.
c) Reinforcement is also called dispersive selection.
d) Reinforcement decreases the morphological difference between two incipient species.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a, that is, it is a kind of natural selection.
Explanation:
A procedure of speciation in which the phenomenon of natural selection enhances the reproductive isolation amongst the population of two species is known as reinforcement. This takes place as a consequence of selection functioning against the generation of hybrid entities of low fitness.
The concept was developed originally by Alfred Wallace, also considered as the Wallace effect. Reinforcement signifies towards some of the circumstances in which selection can encourage an enhancement in prezygotic isolation, affecting the procedure of speciation straightforwardly.
Reinforcement decreases the morphological difference between two incipient species.
Explanation:The statement that is true about reinforcement is: (d) Reinforcement decreases the morphological difference between two incipient species.
Reinforcement is a process in which natural selection strengthens reproductive isolation between populations, reducing the chances of interbreeding and promoting the development of distinct species.
This occurs when there is hybridization between two populations with partial reproductive isolation, and natural selection favors individuals that have traits that reduce hybridization and increase reproductive isolation.
For example, if a bird species with different coloration populations come into contact, and there is hybridization between them, natural selection may favor individuals that display more extreme coloration that distinguishes them from hybrids. This reduction in morphological difference between the two populations results in reinforcement as it increases reproductive isolation.
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Populations of amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by disease and high rates of deformity. A recent study investigated whether problems among the populations have arisen due to poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. Biologists from the University of Florida collected local adult cane toads (Bufo marinus) from more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to agriculture—both large-scale and small-scale farms as well as from suburbs located far from agricultural sites. At collection sites where 50–97% of the adjacent land was farmed, males showed high levels of feminization. Feminized male toads were similar in color to females and had lower levels of testosterone and often had deformed gonads. These changes can lead to sterile males or changes in behavior that prevent mating from occurring. Based on this study, what is the control group?
Make an inference about what happens to the matter and energy during the formation and breakdown of a complex carbohydrate molecule? When is energy stored or released?
Answer:
The breakdown of carbohydrates in the cell during cellular respiration does not change the matter or energy in the molecule. Actually, the matter in the energy molecule, which is the number of atoms and molecule, remains the same and are only transferred to make other molecules (remember that in a chemical reaction, the number of atoms on the reactants side must balance with those of the products). The energy in the bonds of the molecule, as they are broken down by metabolic enzymes, are what is transferred to ATPs. This process is not efficient as most energy is lost as heat. The energy in the ATPs is used in catabolic process like the formation of carbohydrates in the Calvin cycle of plants. Catabolic processes reduce entropy - & increase Gibbs free energy - hence require energy.
Ultimately, no energy or matter is destroyed or made, it is only transferred, hence observing the first law of thermodynamics.
Energy in the body is stored through glycogenesis where glycogen is formed from excess glucose and stored in tissues. When energy is required, this glycogen is broken down back to glucose through glycogenolysis and it can be used in cellular respiration.
A cell membrane that transports glucose, ions, or other charged or polar molecules is likely to have a higher percentage and greater variety of proteins than one that does not transport these molecules.
Answer: True
Explanation:
A cell membrane consists of a lipid bilayer made of polar phosphate head and a nonpolar lipid tail. It is semipermeable and regulates the transport of materials through it. For this, it is selectively permeable and since it is made of lipids, hydrophobic and small polar molecules can diffuse easily through it by simple diffusion and down their concentration gradient. However, polar molecules, large molecules (such as glucose) and ions are not able to pass through it because they are repelled.
To accomplish the transport of these molecules that can not diffuse, proteins embebbed in the membrane function as carriers that enable the transport of polar molecules, large molecules and ions by passive (through facilitated diffusion, down its concentration gradient) or active transport (movement against its concentration gradient).
When Avery and his colleagues had obtained what was concluded to be the transforming factor from the IIIS virulent cells, they treated the fraction with proteases, RNase, and DNase, followed in each case by the assay for retention or loss of transforming ability. What were the purpose and results of these experiments? What conclusions were drawn?
Answer:
The fraction was treated with proteases and RNase to remove the contamination of protein and RNA respectively from the DNA sample.
Conclusion: DNA is the genetic material and is responsible for transformation. RNA and protein are not responsible for transformation.
Explanation:
Avery and his colleagues extracted the DNA from the heart killed virulent strains of bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. They showed that the DNA from the heat-killed virulent strains of the bacteria was able to transform the live nonvirulent strains into the virulent form.
There was a possibility of the presence of RNA or protein along with the extracted DNA. So, the RNA or protein could serve as a transforming factor but not the DNA.
To exclude the possibility of RNA or protein to serve as heredity material, they treated the extract from the heat-killed virulent strains with DNase, RNase and proteases separately.
It was shown that the extract treated with RNase or protease was able to bring about transformation while the extract treated with DNase could not transform the nonvirulent strains.
Hence, it was concluded that DNA was the genetic material and the molecule responsible for transformation.
You have been asked to lead a research team to observe gorillas in their natural environment, collect DNA samples, and analyze how gorillas from different areas differ in gene expression. Which preferable skills should your team have?
Answer:
As i am asked to lead a research team to observe gorillas in their natural environment I will prefer a team having persons expert in having knowledge of forest in which we are doing research on gorillas. They must be experience in working with gorillas and familiar with their nature.
My team should have a person who know to use the tranquilizer gun because to collect the DNA sample gorilla needs to be tranquilized. My team should have one veterinary doctor who can examine the animal and take the DNA sample.
People with Good communication skills, observation skills and critical thinking skills are required in the team to successfully complete the research.
If this particular antigen attempts to re-infect Caleb, it’s in for a bigger fight. By getting activation of adaptive immune cells such as B-cells and T-cells, the body generates an extra layer of protection. What is a critical advantage for Caleb the next time he encounters this antigen?
Question 19
A compound formed in solution from the negative ion of an acid and the positive ion of a base is a _____.
A)salt
B)soap
C)glycerin
D)detergent
Answer:
A compound formed in solution from the negative ion of an acid and the positive ion of a base is a salt. Hence the answer is option A
Explanation:
Salt is a product which is formed when a base is reacted with an acid. This reaction is also known as neutralization reaction because the base neutralizes the acid and the acid neutralizer base. By the course of action of these two salt is formed which is sour in taste.
This salt gets deposited in the base of the container as a form of precipitation. The salt can be of different color depending upon the color of base and acid which was used during the chemical reaction.
A flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is a(n) ______. a flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is a(n) ______. raphe fascicle aponeurosis tendon
A flat sheet of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is called an aponeurosis.
Explanation:A flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is known as an aponeurosis. This connective tissue is similar to a tendon but it differs in being a broader, flatter structure. In skeletal muscles, when the collagen of the three tissue layers, or the mysia, does not interweave with a tendon, it may instead fuse with an aponeurosis or to the fascia. An example of an aponeurosis can be seen in the lower back where the latissimus dorsi muscles, also known as "lats", fuse into this flat, wide connective tissue to aid in movement of the skeleton.
Question 6
A weak base ______ in solution.
A)dissociates completely
B)does not dissociate completely
C)does not dissociate
D)none of these
Answer:
A weak base does not dissociate completely in a solution. Hence the answer is option b.
Explanation:
A solution is said to be a basic solution when it has OH- component in it. A base is when reacted with acid it neutralizes the solution and forms salt as a product. This salt gets deposited in the base of container. A base can turn red litmus into blue. It is bitter in taste.
NaOH is an example of base which is common. A base is called as a strong base when it is completely dissociate in an aqueous solution and weak base partially disassociate in the aqueous solution. Base generally donate electrons.
Which of the following statements is/are true?a. Loose connective tissue includes cartilage. b. Closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues. c. Dense irregular connective tissue has a high proportion of elastic fibers. d. Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers.
Answer:
d. Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers.
Explanation:
Bones and cartilage are the supporting connective tissue while loose and dense connective tissues are categorized as the connective tissue proper. Cartilage does not have nerves and blood vessels in its extracellular matrix.
Loose connective tissues have the fibers loosely arranged between the cells while the dense connective tissues have tightly packed fibers.
Both dense regular and irregular connective tissues mainly have a high proportion of white collagen fibers. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of dense regular connective tissues while the dense irregular connective tissues are present in the inner location of the skin.
Of the statements given, only 'd' is true: Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers and is known for its resistance to stretching.
Explanation:The question revolves around the characteristics of various types of connective tissue. Statement 'a' that loose connective tissue includes cartilage is not true; cartilage is considered a supportive connective tissue. Statement 'b,' suggesting that closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues, is incorrect because such a description applies to dense regular connective tissue instead. Statement 'c,' regarding dense irregular connective tissue having a high proportion of elastic fibers, is not necessarily true, as dense irregular connective tissue typically has collagen fibers interwoven into a mesh-like structure. The correct statement is 'd,' which states that dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers. Dense connective tissue provides great resistance to stretching due to the higher quantity of collagen fibers when compared to loose connective tissue.
The researcher inoculates the test population of bacteria onto glucose salts agar containing penicillin and also on nutrient agar containing penicillin. She counts 25 colonies on the glucose salts plate lacking histamine and 32 colonies on the nutrient agar. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The colonies on both plates contain penicillin-resistant mutants. b. The glucose salts plate contains some mutants. c. The bacteria on the glucose salts medium are mutants while the bacteria on the nutrient agar are wild type. d. The bacteria growing on the nutrient agar are mutants while those growing on the glucose salts medium are wild type. e. The bacteria that failed to grow on the glucose salts medium are double mutants.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
An experiment was performed in which a bacterial population was inoculated in the glucose-salt agar penicillin and another on the nutrient agar containing penicillin.
Both of the plates that contains bacteria have penicillin mutant bacteria. This is so because both the plates contains penicillin, there was growth seen on both the plates.
On one plate the bacteria have grown with no histidine( his mutant) and on another using the nutrient agar.
So, the colonies on the both the medium is penicillin-resistant mutant.
Final answer:
The correct answer is that the colonies on both the glucose salts agar and nutrient agar plates contain penicillin-resistant mutants, as colonies have developed in the presence of the antibiotic penicillin on both plates.
Explanation:
The scenario provided involves inoculating a population of bacteria onto two different types of agar, both containing penicillin. The growth of colonies on these plates indicates that some bacteria have developed resistance to penicillin. According to the details given, the correct statement is:
a. The colonies on both plates contain penicillin-resistant mutants.
Both the glucose salts agar and the nutrient agar plates contained penicillin, yet colonies grew on both. This suggests the presence of penicillin-resistant mutants on both plates. Mutants that can resist penicillin would grow despite the antibiotic's presence. In contrast,-sensitive bacteria would not grow under these conditions. The information provided does not allow us to determine whether the mutants differ in other aspects, such as histidine production, only that they can resist penicillin.
Cells are usually plated on both nutritionally complete and nutrient-deficient plates to detect mutants because the growth on the complete plate confirms the transfer of cells and their viability, whereas growth on the deficient plates indicates the presence of nutritional mutants, or auxotrophs, that can synthesize the missing nutrients themselves. The growth on the glucose salts plate lacking histamine suggests the presence of bacteria mutants capable of histidine synthesis.
PLEASE HELP ME
When water changes phase, it gains or loses energy. During which of the following types of phase changes do the particles of water gain energy?
A
freezing
B
condensation
C
deposition
D
melting
During melting phase the particles of water gain energy.Thus, option D is correct.
What is melting and freezing of water?
The process of melting in which the solid water changes into liquid form the process is known as melting.Freezing is the process in which phase change or state change takes place it means that a process in which a liquid change into solid.
Freezing process can be achieved by extracting heat i.e or removing latent heat, latent heat, energy absorbed or released by a substance during a change in its physical state (phase) that occurs without change in temperature.
So, during the formation of ice from water, heat is removed from water at zero degree celsius at constant temperature, then water changes into ice.
A freezing or solidification process may occur in a liquid, initially at a uniform temperature, either above or at the the freezing temperature or fusion point.
Therefore, during melting phase the particles of water gain energy.Thus, option D is correct.
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Two components are common to all four DNA nucleotides, and one component differs. Drag each of the following terms to the appropriate column to indicate whether that item is commonly found in all DNA nucleotides or only in specific DNA nucleotides.-phosphate-deoxyribose sugar-thymine-cytosine-adenine-guanine
In DNA nucleotides, the phosphate and deoxyribose sugar are common components, while the nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine) is the varying component.
Explanation:In the structure of DNA, there are four types of nucleotides, each composed of three components: a phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
Two of these components - the phosphate and deoxyribose sugar - are common to all four DNA nucleotides. The component that differs across the four DNA nucleotides is the nitrogenous base, which can be either adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), or guanine (G).
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Phosphate and deoxyribose sugar are common to all DNA nucleotides. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine are the parts that vary across different nucleotides in DNA. The presence of these bases determines the unique identity and pairing of each nucleotide.
Explanation:The two components common to all four DNA nucleotides are phosphate and deoxyribose sugar. These components are part of the structure of every nucleotide, whether in DNA or RNA. The nitrogenous base is what varies between different nucleotides. In DNA, these bases are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Adenine and guanine are classified as double-ringed purines, while cytosine and thymine are single-ringed pyrimidines. The specific nitrogenous base present gives the nucleotide its unique identity and determines its pairing in the DNA structure.
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Alissa is a 41-year-old, married, professional woman who has just found out that she is pregnant with her third child. According to your textbook, which of the following conditions is her baby at higher risk of due to Alissa’s age?a) Down syndromeb) Phenylketonuriac) ADHDd) Von Recklinghausen disease (neurofibromatosis)
Answer:
Down syndrome.
Explanation:
Down syndrome may be defined as the medical condition that occurs due to the presence of extra chromosome at the chromosome number 21. The individual has big head, rolled finger and tongue.
The chances of Down syndrome increases as the mother's age increases. The egg of the female get arrested at diplotene stage and with the increased age of mother the phenomena like translocation and non disjunction increases at this stage.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
ablo and Johanna have to do a yearlong study for their biology course. After some discussion, they decide to try comparing their dogs and the diet that they feed them. Each has a dog from the pound, and both dogs are less than one year old. Pablo feeds his shepherd-mix dog a special diet of wet and dry foods from the local vet, while Johanna uses generic dry kibble from the supermarket for her bulldog. They want to see which diet results in bigger, healthier, faster-growing dogs.
When they write up their initial proposal, the instructor will probably ________.
When they write up their initial proposal, the instructor will probably state that the cannot compare a shepherd-mix dog with a bulldog. Since they are different races, the diet is not representative of the feature they want to measure.
In order to compare which diet results in bigger, healthier and faster growing dogs, they should have the same dog.
which of the following is not an interpretation that can be made from an age structure diagram
A. rate of change in population size
b. distribution of age
c. the comparative sizes of the male and female populations
d. The effect of a natural disaster on population size.
Answer:
Option C, the comparative sizes of the male and female populations
Explanation:
Demographers very frequently use age structure diagram also known as population pyramid as a tool to understand the distribution of population into two groups i.e male and female population along with details of age.
The pyramid diagram is generally of three type -
a) Progressive - growing population
b) Stagnant - stagnant population
c) Degenerative - decreasing population
Hence, option C is correct
Fruits evolved primarily as structures specialized to _____. Fruits evolved primarily as structures specialized to _____.
- protect pollen
- provide a source of food to the plant's embryo
- disperse seeds
- provide food for humans
- protect seeds
Answer: Option C. "disperse seeds"
Explanation:
Fruits are evolved from the dispersion of seeds which are formed from ovules present in the ovary.
Seed dispersal can be defined as the movement or transfer of seeds away from the parent plant.
There are several ways of seed dispersal that supports evolution of fruit including by animals, birds , insects, wind and water. Animals went to plants for the purpose or food and some seed get stick to their body which helps in seed dispersal to other places, Birds and insects get attracted to the appearance of flowers and carry seeds or some pollen with them and spread on other flowers, wind transport seed along with it and plants near a river or water surface uses the flowing water to transport their seeds.
Hence, the primary structure responsible for fruit is disperse seed.
A scientist is testing a new plant food to see if it causes plants to grow faster. The scientist tests two plants with the new plant food, and two plants he grows without plant food. What is the independent variable?
Which rock feature is the line running between points A and B most likely to be?
(I accidentally clicked C.)
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
A fault is generally defined as the planar or curved fracture that results in the displacement of the rocks on either side of the fault because of the compressional or tensional stress. It is comprised of 2 blocks. The block that is present above the fault is termed as the Hanging-wall, and the block that is below the fault is termed as the Foot-wall. These blocks undergoes changes with the the type of stress that act on it.
This faults are mainly of 3 types, namely-
(1) Normal fault
(2) Reverse fault
(3) Transform fault
Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
PLEASE HELP
What is the function of the cholesterol molecules in a cell membrane?
A. They make it thicker
B. They make it more porous
C. They make it more fluid
D. They make it less flexible
Explanation:
C. They make it more fluid
Lipids are composed of fatty acids which form the hydrophilic head and glycerol which forms the hydrophilic tail; their arrangement can give these non-polar macromolecules hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties. Via diffusion, small water molecules can move across the phospholipid bilayer acts as a semi-permeable membrane into the extracellular fluid or the cytoplasm which are both hydrophilic and contain large concentrations of polar water molecules or other water-soluble compounds.
The hydrophilic heads of the bilayer are attracted to water while their water-repellent hydrophobic tails face towards each other- allowing molecules of water to diffuse across the membrane along the concentration gradient.
Transmembrane proteins are embedded within the membrane from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm, and are sometimes attached to glycoproteins (proteins attached to carbohydrates) which function as cell surface markers. Cholesterol, which is comparatively rigid, anchors other molecules attached to the membrane, maintain membrane stability or structural integrity and aid in separating some lipids, helping with membrane fluidity at low environmental temperatures.
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Which statement is true regarding cancer?
(Select all that apply.)
a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer.
b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
c. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones.
d. Anaplasia means more differentiated cells.
e. Metastasis means less differentiated cells.
Answer:
The correct answers are option a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer and b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
Explanation:
Anaplasia is a medical term used to describe a condition of cells with poor cellular differentiation. It is known that the great the anaplasia, the more aggresive is the cancer. The tumors that have this characteristic are known as anaplastic carcinoma. This malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host when they metastasize to other organs.