three examples of biomass sources used to produce biopower

Answers

Answer 1

Biomass might literally mean a biological mass, but it actually denotes sources that are burned to produce energy. Biomass is considered a renewable energy source. The primary one that has been used for thousands of years is wood; it is still widespread in many primitive areas and it is burned in old and new burners. Biofuels like ethanol from crops is another important source that has been on a rise. They are cheap and they are used a lot in developing countries. Finally, the burning of municipal waste is another source and many Nordic countries use it to produce energy and even some import waste to use as fuel.

Related Questions

When does recombination occur? at the two-strand stage, when the sister chromatids have been separated, and after dna replication at the four-strand stage, when each member of a homologous chromosome pair is composed of two sister chromatids, and after dna replication at the two-strand stage, when each member of a homologous chromosome pair is composed of two sister chromatids, and before dna replication at the four-strand stage, when each member of a homologous chromosome pair is composed of two sister chromatids, and before dna replication before dna replication?

Answers

Crossing over, or recombination, is the exchange of chromosome segments between nonsister chromatids in meiosis. Crossing over creates new combinations of genes in the gametes that are not found in either parent, contributing to genetic diversity.

How did the Great Depression lead to calls for renewed expansion (in Japan)

Answers

Nationalists argued that expansion could provide new resources because the export industry was suffering.

The Great Depression fed the discontent of the military and ultranationalists. They had their sights set on Manchuria northern area and used the Chinese as scapegoats for blowing up railroad to invade Manchuria.

Assume that a recessive allele (f) is associated with a severe language disorder. An unaffected male wants to determine the genotypes of his wife, his parents, and himself. His mother has the language disorder. Neither he nor his wife has the language disorder, but one of their five children does. What is the genotype for each individual?

Answers

His mother has the language disorder but he doesn't have the language disorder. That means the disease must be recessive and he must carry 1 defect gene. So the male would be heterozygous. His father could be heterozygous or homozygous dominant.

A recessive gene only expressed with 2 alleles, 1 from both parents. One of their five children does. His child that has the disease should get it from his gene and his wife gene. So, his wife at least has 1 defect gene. Since his wife is normal, then she must be heterozygous.

What is the greiss test? In forensic science?

Answers

It is to test for nitrates in a substance, mainly testing for explosive residues

Hello,

Here is your answer:

The proper answer to your question is that it is "used to detect the presence of nitrite ion in solution. This test is used widely for the detection of the ion solution".

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

in which part if the cell is chorophyll found

Answers

i dont quit know off the top of my head sorry

Answer:

cytoplasm

Explanation:

which part of the cell membrane is responsible for preventing unwanted materials from entering the cell

Answers

LIPID BILAYER

The most important property of lipid bilayer is that it is highly impermeable structure. Impermeable means that it do not allow molecules to pass freely across the cell membrane. Water and gases can easily pass through the lipid bilayer. With this property means that large molecules and polar molecules cannot cross the bilayer. This property can be due to the structure of the lipid bilayer its asymmetrical, they also have different lipid and protein composition.

Microorganisms that cause disease are classified as _____.
A.pathogens
B.inorganic materials
C.thermal pollutants
D.organic materials

Answers

C is the answer, I believe

Answer:

pathogens

Explanation:

What type of confined space has the normal hazards presented by a confined space plus additional hazards?
A.
Permit-required
B.
Hazard
C.
Characteristic

Answers

Hello,

The answer is option A "Permit-required".

Reason:

A permit-required is the confined space in which normal hazards are presented plus other hazards. Its not option B because the answer would not be hazard because there talking about additional hazards and confined spaces (probably safe rooms). Its also not option C because characteristic is a type but its describing a type of hazard its not a way to confine it.

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

~Nonportrit

Jackie was born with _____ , the absence· of long· wavelength cones .

Answers

PROTANOPE. These are the individuals that suffers form color blindness. This color blindness is due to the absence fo the L- cones which are cones that are sensitive to long wavelength. Cones are one of the three types of photoreceptos found in the retina. These are responsilble for color vision and function best in a brightl light. In contrast to the rods which works on dim light. Cones are found in the fovea.

Which does not contribute to triglyceride digestion?

Answers

The correct answer is lipase activity in the large intestine.
Triglycerides are the main components of body fat and human skin oils. Lipases are enzymes which break down the fats or lipids in the body. They are responsible for the digestion and general processing of triglycerides. There are several different lipases in the human body, pancreatic lipase acting in the small intestine, hepatic lipase, lipase acting in the endothelium and lipase in the bile acid.

Neurofibromatosis, a genetic disease caused by mutation on the NF1 gene, follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. The diagram shows that the father carries two copies of the defective gene and the mother is unaffected. What percentage of offspring will have neurofibromatosis?

Affected: RR Normal: rr

A: 0%

B: 25%

C: 50%

D: 100%

Answers

As you can see in a cross shown in the image below, all of the progeny would have the Rr genotype.
Since the NF1 gene that is the genetic causes of Neurofibromatosis is expressing an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance, the heterozygotes would also have the disease.
Therefore, the correct answer is D, 100%.

Answer:

100% is the correct answer

Explanation:

In dominnt/recessive inheritance patter,s the dominant allele is always expressed when present. the recessive allele is only expressed when the dominant allele is not present. use your observations from this activity to describe how codominant inheritance patterns differ from dominant/recessive inheritance patterns

Answers

in co-dominance pattern, both allele express. some part of the phenotype is formed by dominant while remaining part is expressed by recessive allele. as a result an intermediate form is formed.

Which sentence uses parentheses correctly?
A) Believe it or not) our football team hasn't won a game in over twenty years.
B) (To be honest) I don't think that Cami is a person who can be trusted with secrets.
C) The apartment (which hadn't been lived in for a full year) was filled with trash and debris.
D) Dr. Long (who never taught in a classroom for more than two years isn't really prepared to be a principal.

Answers

c is the only one that is correct

Answer:i think the anwser is c

Explanation:

A patient who is pregnant has a history of recurrent genital herpesvirus (hsv). the patient asks the nurse what will be done to suppress an outbreak when she is near term. the nurse will tell the patient that:

Answers

The nurse can advise the client that an oral acyclovir can be used during pregnancy. This is what the ob-gynes prescribed to avoid the outbreak to pregnant clients diagnosed with herpes virus or hsv.

One characteristic of a lagoon is often: concentrated salt deep-sea fossils glacial till turbidity currents

Answers

One characteristic of a lagoon is often: concentrated salt.

concentrated salt. its oddysseyware question

9. _______ is a force of attraction that occurs between objects due to their mass. A. Magnetism B. Weight C. Deposition D. Gravity

Answers

Hey there!

Your answer is option "D."
Gravity is a force of attraction that occurs between objects due to their mass.
Gravity is why we are attracted to Earth, it pulls us to the ground.

Hope this helps you.
Have a great day!

Hello,

Here is your answer:

The proper answer to your question is option D "gravity". Gravity is what pulls a object to the ground once its dropped for example if you drop a bowling ball it will hit the ground fast and hard because of its weight (mass) but if you drop the bowling ball in space where there's less gravity it will hit the moon less faster then it will hit the ground on Earth because of how there's not a lot of gravity!

Your answer is D.

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

Choose three symbiotic partners—one that illustrates mutualism, one that illustrates commensalism, and one that illustrates parasitism. Write a short paragraph (2-4 sentences) for each of the three symbiotic partners you chose, explaining how symbiosis functions in the partnership.

Answers

The pharynx is a passageway that is common to the respiratory and digestive system. It connects nasal and oral cavity with the trachea and esophagus Oropharynx- ventral to the soft palate Nasopharynx-dorsal to the soft palate Laryngopharynx- caudal to the soft palate Define the pharynx and its parts Hard palate dorsally Tongue ventrally Teeth laterally and rostrally What structures outline the oral cavity proper? It is the space outside the teeth/gums and inside the lip/cheek What is the vestibule The palatoglossal arch divides the oropharynx and oral cavity. It is a mucosal fold that extends between the body and root of the tongue to the beginning to the soft palate. Identify the structure outlined in red. Which two structures does it separate? Palatine tonsil It is located in the tonsillar fossa in the oropharynx, caudal to the palatoglossal arch Identify the structure outlined in red The nasopharynx is part of the respiratory channel. Bounded rostrally by the choanae and ends at the palatopharyngeal arch which is at the caudal end of the soft palate. Red structure is the palatopharyngeal arch which extends caudally on each side from the caudal border of the soft palate to the dorsolateral wall of the laryngopharynx. It contains the opening to the auditory tube. It divides the nasopharynx and laryngopharynx. What are the boundaries of the nasopharynx (outlined in blue)? What is the structure outlined in red? Laryngopharynx It is caudal to the soft palate and dorsal to the larynx. This is the part where air from the nasopharynx crosses to reach the larynx and food and water from oropharynx cross over to reach the esophagus Red dotted line signifies air flow Identify the structure highlighted in blue. Describe its purpose and boundaries. What does the red dotted line signify?

Why is the ability to use creativity an advantage when attempting to find answers to old problems?

Answers

the scientist finds it easier to design a new experiment to test a hypothesis.
Thinking outside of the box and applying new strategies is always helpful when solving problems.

Hope this helps!

-Payshence xoxo

Which of the following shows the evolutionary relationships between organisms?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A. Branching tree diagram. Organisms start at a small level. Then evolves to a branching tree. I took the test and got it right. Have a great day.

Explanation:

The following shows the evolutionary relationships between organisms: A phylogenetic tree shows the evolutionary relationships between organisms; this is option A.

What is a phylogenetic tree?

Phylogenetic trees are a way of illustrating the evolutionary relationships between different organisms or groups of organisms. The tree represents the pattern of branching of different species, indicating their evolutionary relatedness. Each branching point on the tree represents a point at which two species diverged from a common ancestor, with the length of the branches indicating the amount of evolutionary time that has passed since that divergence. Phylogenetic trees can be constructed based on different types of data, such as genetic or morphological traits. DNA sequences are often used to construct phylogenetic trees, as they provide a record of the evolutionary history of different organisms.

Hence, the following shows the evolutionary relationships between organisms: A phylogenetic tree shows the evolutionary relationships between organisms; this is option A.

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complete question is below

Which of the following shows the evolutionary relationships between organisms?

A)phylogenetic tree

B)climax community

Mendel formed a possible explanation for the outcomes he observed in pea plants. Mendel formed a theory law hypothesis.

Answers

Mendel formed a possible explanation for the outcomes he observed in pea plants. Mendel formed a "Hypothesis".

When assessing an older adult client, the nurse recognizes the client has a significant hearing loss. the most appropriate intervention by the nurse is to
a. shout into the client's good ear.
b. repeat words the client doesn't understand.
c. introduce herself first.
d. check the hearing aid batteries?

Answers

It would be appropriate to D.) Check the hearing aid batteries

The picture below shows a floodplain alongside a river channel. A floodplain is a flat landform created by deposition on the bottom of a wide river valley.
Over time, a river gradually shifts its position back and forth across a valley bottom. As it shifts, it drops sediment to gradually build up a flat floodplain.

As the landform's name implies, another process plays a role in floodplain formation. Which of the following describes this process?Glaciers move through a river valley every winter and flatten out the landforms.

A. Glaciers move through a river valley every winter and flatten out the landforms.

B. A river may flood its valley and form a permanent inland sea.

C. Acid rain weathers large rocks until they form a broad, flat plain.

D. A river floods over its channel banks and deposits sediment on the wide valley bottom.

Answers

The appropriate answer is D. a river floods over its channel banks and deposits sediment on the wide valley bottom.

Flood plains usually develop along the lower course of the river. The lower course has a gentle gradient and so the flow of water is not fast and therefore the bed load of the river gets deposited. Rivers carry materials such as boulders, pebbles, gravel, sand, silt and clay. The larger size materials will get deposited upstream while the finer material will travel to the lower course.
The glacier melt each year increases the volume of the river so it will overflow its banks and deposit materials in layers on the flood plains. Materials on the flood plain are usually fine such as sand and silt.

Answer:

D. A river floods over its channel banks and deposits sediment on the wide valley bottom.

Analyze and conclude 7. which, if any, of the blood samples tested cna the patient with type b+ blood receive? explain why. 8. explain how you were able to use your knowledge of how different types of blood react with anti-a, anti-b, and anti rh antibodies to determine the blood types of the four samples. 9. if a person has type a blood, he or she would have antibodies for what blood type? 10. why is type o negative blood known as the universal donor? why is o positive not a universal donor?

Answers

7. which, if any, of the blood samples tested cna the patient with type b+ blood receive? explain why.
It can't be answered because you didn't put the sample test result

8. explain how you were able to use your knowledge of how different types of blood react with anti-a, anti-b, and anti Rh antibodies to determine the blood types of the four samples.
If the blood react with anti-a, then the blood must not have A antigen
If the blood react with anti-b, then the blood must not have B antigen
If the blood react with anti Rh, then the blood must not have Rh antigen
Based on the antigen, you can conclude the result as:
react with anti A= blood type B
react with anti B= blood type A
react with anti A and anti B= blood type O
react with anti Rh= Rh-
not react with anti Rh= Rh+

9. if a person has type a blood, he or she would have antibodies for what blood type?
Type A blood has antigen A. So that person should not have anti-A antigens.
The person should have anti-B antibodies because it was a foreign object to him. Depends on the Rhesus type, he can have Rh antibodies too.

10. why is type o negative blood known as the universal donor? why is o positive not a universal donor?

Type O blood doesn't have antigen-A or antigen-B. That means the blood cells won't trigger any reaction on Type A, B, AB, or O blood. Negative rhesus also means that the blood is safe for Rhesus negative or Rhesus positive type.

Positive O blood type has rhesus antigen, so it will trigger a reaction in Rhesus negative type.

The blood types of the four samples were determined on the basis of the anti-factor present. The condition of each of the blood samples are given below:

If the blood sample reacts with anti-a, then the blood sample must not have an antigen A.If the blood sample reacts with anti-b, then the blood sample must not have an antigen B. If the blood sample reacts with anti-Rh, then the blood sample must not have antigen Rh.

Based on this, it may be concluded the result as:

Blood reacts with anti-A possess Blood group B.

Blood reacts with anti-B possess Blood group A.

Blood reacts with anti-A and anti-B possess Blood group O.

What do you mean by Rh-antigen?

Rh-antigen may be defined as the transmembrane proteins that are expressed at the surface of erythrocytes.

If a person has Blood type A, he or she does not have anti-A antigen and possesses anti-B antibodies. This is because the anti-A antigen is a foreign substance for their body. Due to the presence of the Rh factor, the O-negative blood type is known as the universal donor because it does not have positive Rh to stimulate any abnormal reaction in the body, while O-positive has the Rh factor which stimulates or triggers various abnormal reactions.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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A cuticle occurs on the surface of organisms of many phyla and appears to be an advantageous feature. why have higher organisms not retained this structure?

Answers

While the cuticle has several advantages such as protection, they do not confer much advantage to larger eukaryotes. This is because of their limiting factor to growth (size). The cuticle would also restrict development of different skin structures such as fur. Additionally, while the cuticle provides leverage for muscular movements on arthropods, nematodes, and flatworms, it is not necessary for larger animals since the same function is rendered by the endoskeleton.

Complentary rna to dna strand ACCGAGCTT

Answers

The equivalent RNA strand would be UGGCUCGAA.

This was obtained knowing that the base pairs, of pyrimidines and purines are complementary. Where also a single pyrimidine that is T is replaced with U in RNA molecules.

Herbicides are being used to kill weeds in a nearby field. The plants absorb the herbicides from the soil. Which organelle in the plant will most likely store the absorbed herbicide waste?

Answers

Vacuole organelle in the plant will most likely store the absorbed herbicide waste.

The process that facilitates herbicide uptake is simple diffusion. When the spray lands on the leaf surface it places a high concentration of chemicals on the leaf surface and no herbicides inside the leaf. Some are channeled, and others are considered contact herbicides that do not migrate much from the absorption site.

Herbicides tend to act fairly quickly. Translocated herbicides migrate through the xylem or phloem. Herbicides must have damaged the cell walls, as they are responsible for supporting and maintaining cell integrity. Herbicides are specifically designed to minimize plant diversity by controlling weeds and promoting monocultures, thus indirectly reducing the abundance and diversity of associated soil organisms. Not only can it reduce the natural input of soil organic matter.

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Theory 1 what caused the giraffe neck to become longer

Answers

fossils are found of giraffes with short necks.
Lamarck believed the giraffes stretched their necks and passed it to their offspring
necks grew longer due to stretching.
giraffes need long necks for food and evolution provided it to them

which substance is the most acidic? sodium hydroxide, tomato juice, lemon juice or water?

Answers

I believe it would be C.) Lemon juice because it has the lowest ph, meaning it is very acidic.

I believe it is Lemon juice. It has a lot of acid in it.

How might mike smith have benefited from personalized chemotherapy?

Answers

Mike Smith can be benefited by chemotherapy because the medication helps to increase the production of blood cells to replace the damaged ones. It also a type of treatment for cancer patients that uses agents like chemical to make or control diseases or even a mental disorder. This also stops or slow the growing cells of cancer cells that affect the health cells. And also he can be benefited by personalized chemotherapy because it is based on specific genetic profile of individual patients, it is replacing the traditional way of medicine. it is more likely customized.

Personalized cancer treatments or screening processes involves:

- Diagnose the type of cancer and select screening strategies to lower the risk of developing any further.

- Make sure the treatment matches the patient and cause less side effects

- Induce no recurrence of cancer

It can be said that in Mike’s case, the treatment suited his body and the side effects were lessening. Also, the treatment vanishes the chances of reoccurrence of cancer.

How do dating methods help to support the theory of natural selection and biological evolution? How is it different than Darwin’s original ideas on speciation? Differentiate between absolute and relative dating techniques, giving one example of each. What is punctuated equilibrium?

Answers

Final answer:

Dating methods provide evidence of the age of fossils and the timing of key evolutionary events. Absolute dating techniques give a numerical age, while relative dating techniques provide a relative age. Punctuated equilibrium is a theory of evolution that suggests long periods of little change followed by rapid evolution.

Explanation:

Dating methods help to support the theory of natural selection and biological evolution by providing evidence of the age of fossils and the timing of key evolutionary events. Absolute dating techniques, such as radiometric dating, provide an actual numerical age for fossils or rocks. For example, radiocarbon dating can be used to determine the age of organic materials up to about 50,000 years old. Relative dating techniques, such as stratigraphy, provide an understanding of the relative age of fossils or rocks. For example, the law of superposition states that in undisturbed rock layers, the oldest rocks are at the bottom and the youngest are at the top.

Darwin's original ideas on speciation did not involve dating methods, as these methods were not well-developed during his time. Instead, he focused on observational evidence from the natural world to propose his theory of evolution by natural selection.

Punctuated equilibrium is a theory in evolutionary biology that suggests that species may undergo long periods of little or no change, followed by relatively short periods of rapid evolution. This theory was proposed by Stephen Jay Gould and Niles Eldredge in 1972 as an alternative explanation to the gradualistic model of evolution proposed by Charles Darwin.

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