Answer:
The answer is cytotoxic T cells
Explanation:
Cytoxic T cells are cell-mediated immune response which are able to induce apoptosis in body cells in order to display epitopes or foreign antigen on their surface such as cells with intracellular bacteria, virus infected cells and cancer cells displaying tumor antigens.
Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). They recognize viral proteins on the cell surface and subsequently kill these infected cells to prevent further viral multiplication.
Explanation:Virus-infected cells are primarily detected and destroyed by the Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). These are a type of T cell which play an important role in the cell-mediated immune response. Cytotoxic T cells are especially effective against virus-infected or cancer cells. They are trained to recognize viral proteins on the surface of infected cells. Once identified, they kill the infected cells to prevent the virus from proliferating.
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Hydrogen peroxide is a more robust inhibitor of bacterial growth than 70% isopropyl alcohol and Betadine. However, isopropyl alcohol and/or Betadine are used to prepare skin prior to surgery but hydrogen peroxide is not. Why might this be?
Answer:
Because it destroys healthy skin cells.
Explanation:
Hydrogen peroxide is an antiseptic that is more potent than 70% isopropyl alcohol and betadine but even then it is not used by doctors because it has a damaging effect on skin cells.
Our cells contain catalase enzyme which reacts with hydrogen peroxide and release reactive oxygen species which cause cytotoxic effect. So applying hydrogen peroxide on the wound to clean it destroys the cells and delay the healing of the wound.
Therefore due to damaging side effects of hydrogen peroxide on human cells, it is generally not used by doctors.
A 6-year-old boy has just come in from school and wants a snack. The mother is trying to maintain a heart-healthy diet for him by following the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. What would be the best snack the mother could give him?
Answer: yogurt and banana oat cookies
Explanation: yogurt is a good source of protein and is high in calcium for healthy bones and some contain some helpful bacteria for the kids digestive system while banana oat cookies get their sweetness from mashed banana instead of refined sugar which is prone to causing diabetes.
A heart-healthy snack for a 6-year-old should include fresh fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, and whole grains while avoiding added sugars and fats. Engaging the child in snack selection and preparation can encourage healthy eating habits. It's beneficial to keep these healthy snacks easily accessible.
For a 6-year-old child adhering to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, the best snack would integrate components from different food groups while avoiding high sugar and high-fat options. Offering a variety of nutrient-dense foods is pivotal. Suitable snacks could include washed and chopped fresh vegetables like celery and carrots, "grab-and-go" fruits such as apples or bananas, low-fat dairy products like yogurt without added sugars, or whole-grain crackers. It is beneficial to have these healthy snacks readily accessible for children to encourage heart-healthy eating habits from a young age.
It is important to ensure that snacks for children provide necessary nutrition without leading to overfeeding. Engaging the child in selecting and preparing their snacks, perhaps by letting them choose their favorite fruits or vegetables at the store or by assisting in washing or arranging the snacks, can make snack-time both educational and enjoyable. This approach not only teaches children about healthy eating habits but also about kitchen safety and meal planning.
Therefore, snacks that are low in sugars and fats and high in nutrients, like fresh fruits and unsweetened dairy products, alongside whole grains and vegetables are aligned with the heart-healthy diet recommendations for children. Engaging children in the process helps to establish these patterns early on, laying the groundwork for lifelong healthy eating habits.
An infection control nurse has identified a problem related to infection control procedures on a medical unit that has a high census of clients diagnosed with tuberculosis. The nurse has decided to conduct an in-service education program for the staff about the required transmission-based precautions. The nurse determines that the program was successful based on which statement by the staff?
Answer and Explanation:
Tuberculosis is an infectious and transmissible disease that primarily affects the lungs, although it can affect other organs and / or systems. The disease is caused by the Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Koch's bacillus. It is an air spread disease and occurs from the inhalation of aerosols from the airways during the speech, sneezing, or coughing of people with active tuberculosis, who release aerosol-containing particles into the air that contain the bacillus.
With the initiation of treatment, transmission tends to decrease gradually and, generally, after 15 days of treatment, it is greatly reduced. However, control measures should be implemented such as covering the mouth with the arm or handkerchief when coughing, keeping the environment well ventilated and with plenty of sunlight. The bacillus is sensitive to sunlight, and air circulation enables dispersion of infecting particles. Thus, ventilated environments with direct natural light reduce the risk of transmission.
So the program was sucessful if the number of patients decreased, as the disease can be controlled veru easily by that measures controls listed above.
The success of the in-service education program would be apparent if the staff can thoroughly articulate and properly carry out tuberculosis transmission precautions like special ventilation, using masks, strict hand hygiene, diligent sterilization of medical equipment and stringent isolation procedures.
Explanation:The ability of the staff to articulate and properly implement tuberculosis transmission precautions such as maintaining special ventilation in rooms, using masks, careful hand hygiene, diligent sterilization of equipment, and stringent isolation procedures of patients, indicates the success of the in-service education program. The staff should also know how to respond if a potential transmission or breakdown in the infection control protocol occurs, which includes seeking immediate medical consultation and patient management. Furthermore, understanding how to adopt special protocols, including the use of personal protective equipment and practicing preventive measures such as immediate disinfection upon entry and exit, is crucial in preventing the transmission of tuberculosis and other infectious diseases.
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Put the events associated with the mechanism of action of cholera in the correct sequential order.
1. Adenylyl cyclase is turned on, producing cAMP.
2. Cholera binds to intestinal cells.
3. CFTR channels are opened, increasing Cl-diffusion into the lumen of the intestine.
4. Cholera is brought into the cell via endocytosis.
Answer:
2,4,1 and 3.
Explanation:
Cholera toxin is an epidemic disease caused by the bacteria. This mainly causes watery diarrhea and results in the extreme loss of fluid from the body and causes electrolyte deficiency in the body.
The cholera is a toxin is produced by the bacteria. This toxin has the ability to enter in the intestinal cells. This enters into the cell by the endocytic process. This toxin causes he activation of cAMP in the body. cAMP activates the protein kinase A, this causes the opening of CFTR channel. This channel opens the chloride diffusion and results in the loss of chlorine ions from the body.
Thus, the correct order is 2,4,1 and 3.
What is a stress management technique using a form of self-suggestion, wherein an individual is able to place himself or herself in an autohypnotic state by repeating and concentrating on feelings of heaviness and warmth in the extremities?
Answer:
A technique in which an individual is able to place himself or herself in an autohypnotic state by repeating and concentrating on feelings of heaviness and warmth in extremities is known as Autogenic training.
Explanation:
It is a desensitization relaxation technique which is explained by German psychiatrist Johannes Heinrich Schultz in which a psychophysiological determined relaxation is obtained.This technique was first published in 1932.This technique trains a person to access his/her own physical relaxation process and uses it to provide relief in physical as well as emotional stress.It consists of a series of six mental exercises which are utilize to elicit the bodily sensations of warmth & heaviness.This will produce the effect of producing the relaxation response which occurs as a result of physiological change.A student travels to Brazil by boat on the Amazon River, without visiting the doctor prior to traveling for recommended vaccinations for travel to South America. The student becomes ill during the trip and is quarantined. Which of the diseases listed below does the student most likely have____.
Answer:
Yellow fever.
Explanation:
Yellow fever is caused by the virus belong to the Genus Flavi virus. This disease remain for short duration. The mosquito bite is responsible for the spreading of the disease.
The main symptom of this disease headache, muscle and fever. This diseases mainly shows the quarantine means the individual that arrive from other place gets infected with contagious disease. The symptoms of this individual is more or less related to the yellow fever.
Thus, the correct answer is yellow fever.
Rowena is a 15-year-old adolescent who has become shockingly thin. She barely eats and, when she does, she compensates by exercising excessively. Rowena is MOST likely suffering from _____ nervosa.
rsnotes that _____.
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Little Timmy came home from daycare complaining that his throat hurt and he had red, raised spots on his hands and feet. When his mother went to take his temperature she noticed that he had blister-like lesions on his tongue and the inside of his mouth. She immediately called the doctor and asked him to prescribe some antibiotics for Timmy. The doctor explained antibiotics wouldn't help and recommended ibuprofen for the fever and pain, rest and to try to get him to drink lots of fluids. What do you suspect is the causative agent for Timmy's condition?
Answer:
The causative agent is the varicella zoster virus.
Explanation:
The varicella-zoster is the virus responsible for the chickenpox. This virus causes blister like lesions all over the body, fiber, aching muscles, headaches and loss of appetite. The virus spreads through contact with an infected person or contact with any of these person fluids.
The hygiene hypothesis states:
a. Increased use of hygiene products and a mostly indoor lifestyle leaves us with untrained immune systems.
b. Improved hygiene increases the diversity of our microbiota Hygiene products cause antibiotic resistance to be more prevalent in pathogenic microbes.
c. The reduction in infectious disease as the primary cause of mortality is based on improved personal hygiene.
Answer:
None of the given option is correct.
The correct answer is - Increased use of hygiene products and a mostly indoor lifestyle leaves us with untrained immune systems.
Explanation:
Hygiene hypothesis states that the exposure to the microorganisms at the early childhood protects them from allergic reactions. This also boost the natural immune system of the organism.
The hygienic product is beneficial for the organisms. But its excess use and indoor lifestyle will prevent the exposure of the individual with the pathogens. The individual's immune system will not get time to prepare it and natural immunity is least present in these individual. These individuals are more prone to disease.
The term sexually transmitted infection is more accurate than sexually transmitted disease because it is a sexually transmitted pathogen may colonize host tissues without causing further damage to the host.
The correct answer is "True."
Further Explanation:
Several sexually transmitted diseases do not have any symptoms and the person who has the disease may never know they have contracted anything. Some of the sexually transmitted diseases that do not have symptoms are;
ChlamydiaHPVGonorrheaHerpesGonorrheaThese sexually transmitted diseases could be called a sexually transmitted infection since they cause no symptoms in many cases. Women and men should be tested for STD's yearly and after having unprotected sexual encounters.
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Binge drinking is defined for men as drinking ___________ or more drinks in one sitting; for women, who tend to weigh less and whose bodies absorb alcohol less efficiently, binge drinking is defined as ___________ drinks in one sitting.
Answer:
5 drinks for men and 4 drinks for women
Explanation:
Binge drinking can be seen as a usual situation when having fun with your friends or enjoying a social activity of any kind; however, it does not mean that the person who binge drinks is an alcoholic.
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, binge drinking is considered when a man drinks 5 or more drinks and women 4 or more drinks in around 2 hours giving as a result an alcohol concentration of 0.08 grams or more.
Answer:
5 drinks for men and 4 drinks for women
Explanation:
A female client presents with a condition marked by refusal to maintain minimum body weight. An interview reveals that she is intensely fearful of gaining weight and that she has misperceptions of the way her body looks. Which diagnosis is the most likely?
Answer:
Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder. It is a psychological condition whereby an individual has a deep fear of weight gain. For fear of being overweight, the individual starts eating small amounts of food or even refuse to eat, may exercise frequently and adopt other habits in an attempt to achieve weight loss. This disorder is mostly characterized by poor weight gain, intense desire to be thin and food restriction.
According to a national survey of asthma: On May 1, 2010, the number of residents of Oklahoma who had been diagnosed with asthma at any time during their life was A. The population on June 30, 2010, was B. During the same year, the number of new cases of asthma was C. The incidence rate of asthma (per 100,000) would be expressed as__________.
Answer:
The answer is C/B X 100,000
Explanation:
Because that is how we calculate the immune fraction.
Flow of air____________.
a. directly proportional to the resistance, and flow decreases as the pressure of the system increases.
b. is directly proportional to the resistance, and flow increases as the resistance of the system increases.
c. is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow increases as the resistance of the system increases.
d. None of the answers are correct.
e. is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow decreases as the resistance of the system increases.
Answer:
E. is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow decreases as the resistance of the system increases.
Explanation:
The correct answer is:
the flow of air is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow decreases as the resistance of the system increases
Airflow is directly proportional to pressure gradient and inversely proportional to system resistance, which means as resistance increases, airflow decreases.
Explanation:The flow of air is directly proportional to a pressure gradient and inversely proportional to the resistance of the system. As the pressure increases, the flow will also increase, provided that the resistance remains constant. However, if the resistance increases, the flow will decrease. This principle is analogous to Ohm's law in electricity, where current is inversely proportional to resistance. In terms of fluid dynamics, Bernoulli's equation indicates that if pressure is constant and kinetic energy per unit volume increases, the potential energy per unit volume must decrease. Therefore, applying this understanding to the given options, the correct answer is e. is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow decreases as the resistance of the system increases.
A health care provider is assessing a client for a potential endocrine disorder. Assessment findings identify abnormalities with emotion, pain, and body temperature. Which mechanism of endocrine control will require further laboratory/diagnostic assessment?
Answer:
Hypothalamus
Explanation:
It is necessary to go deeper in the analysis of the hypothalamus for this specific situation. The hypothalamus in the human body is one of the most important regions of the brain and its role is basically to coordinate what functions need to be either released or inhibited in order to mantain the correct process of homeostasis in the body.
What is the most important nutrition concern for the person with Alzheimer's disease? prevention of weight loss elimination of dietary aluminum supplementation with zinc treatment with the medicinal herb ginkgo biloba
Answer:
A
Explanation:
alxheimers
A client admitted to the hospital with elevated blood glucose is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What characteristics commonly differentiate type 2 diabetes mellitus from type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
Check below for your answer.
Explanation:
While type 1 diabetes is a genetically predisposed condition and is usually discovered at a young age, type 2 affects obese people and is not genetically predisposed.
When type 2 occurs, the pancreas reduces insulin production while in the case of type 1, the pancreas does not produce insulin at all.
Both of these types require dietary change as well as a healthier and more active lifestyle, but it is type 2 that can progress and become worse.
Wally is allergic to cat fur and it makes him sneeze violently. Anita has several cats and her clothes often have fur on them. After three dates with Anita, Wally has begun to sneeze violently as soon as he sees her. What is sneezing in this example?
The correct answer would be, both unconditioned response and a conditioned response.
After three times, Wally has begun to sneeze violently as soon as he sees her. Sneezing is both unconditioned response and a conditioned response.
Explanation:
Classical conditioning is a learning process in psychology which sees a relation between the stimulus and the response generated due to that stimulus.
There are further categories of stimulus and response. Response can be of two types, one is Conditioned response and the other is unconditioned response.
In the given example, sneezing of Wally is both conditioned and unconditioned response. Wally didn't learn to sneeze because of the presence of cat's fur, this is unconditioned response, but he actually sneezed after seeing Anita, which is a conditioned response.
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"Helena believes that people with psychological disorders are suffering from diseases that have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and sometimes even cured. Helena believes in the _____ model of psychological disorders"
Answer:
Helena believes in the medical model of psychological disorders"
Explanation:
The medical model of psychological disorders is based on psychiatry, which is a branch form medicine. Psychiatry has a therory that sustains that psychological dissorders have organic causes. There for the way they treat pacients is with medication. Medical vision of treatment belives in the possibility of curing someone with medication as other medical problem. There are medicine for anxiety or depression, or psycosis. This means medicine help treat the syntoms, so that they can be control or managed.
Helena believes in the biomedical model of psychological disorders, which approaches these disorders similarly to physical diseases, using medication and other physical treatments.
Explanation:Helena believes that people with psychological disorders are suffering from diseases that have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and sometimes even cured. Helena believes in the biomedical model of psychological disorders. The biomedical model treats psychological disorders as it would any physical disease, often relying on medication and other physical treatments to address these conditions. This model contrasts with other approaches that may include cultural systems, psychoneuroimmunology, and the biopsychosocial model, which consider psychological, social, and cultural factors in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders.
Cultural attitudes towards psychological disorders vary significantly across different societies. For example, the treatment and societal integration of conditions like schizophrenia and gender dysphoria can vary between cultures such as those in the United States, Thailand, and Japan. Understanding these cultural dynamics is an essential aspect of the field of medical anthropology.
If this person did not have class I occlusion but had class III, which tooth or teeth would contact the maxillary second premolar?
a. mandibular canine and 1st premolarb. mandibular 1st and 2nd premolarsc. mandibular 2nd premolar onlyd. mandibular 2nd premolar and 1st molare. mandibular 1st molar only
Answer: the answer is option e
Explanation:
Anterior Maxillary dentition rest posterior to the mandibular anterior teeth. This makes the Posterior teeth to cross bite.
The nurse performs a breast exam on a client and finds a firm, non-moveable lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast that the client reports was not there 3 weeks ago. What does this finding suggest?
Answer:
Malignant tumor
Explanation:
This assumption can be done given the fact that the appearance and subsequent growing of the lump occurred in a very short period of time. Another factor to take into account is that the lump is affecting basal membrane of the breast. In addition it will also be necessary to determine how advanced the tumor is by means of a biopsy or imaging tests.
Modifying your personal action plan can impede personal fitness goals. true or false
Answer: False
Explanation:
Changing one's self-action plan does not prevent you from reaching fitness goals, but on the contrary, it can even help you achieve them.
When you have goals related to sports performance, it is necessary to have a comprehensive plan to achieve it. That is, it is necessary to follow a plan that includes the necessary meals a day according to the person's goals, days and hours of training, what type of training is going to be followed, and how much time you have to rest for muscle recovery.
If a person commits and follows the plan for a few weeks, the results will begin to be visible and in a not too long time, fitness goals will be achieved.
Pediatricians often recommend____ as the first solid food offered to an infant. a. iron-fortified infant rice cereal b. mixed baby food dinners c. french fries d. cooked egg whites.
Answer:
a. iron-fortified infant rice cereal
Explanation:
It's okay to feed babies with foods that are rich in iron, but rice cereal is not always the best option. Still, out of the given choices, this one is the healthiest alternative. The rice cereal that is rich in iron is a good way to provide your baby with it, since they are born with reserves of it, but they start to use them once they're 6 months and older. Babies that are breastfed, need an alternative, as formula is rich in iron and parents wouldn't have to worry about it. The iron found in cereal is not absorbed well and that's why expert suggest that once a baby starts to eat solid food, it's better to feed them with poultry, tofu, red meat, beans, pasta, etc.
Over the past year, a woman has cooked gourmet meals for her family but eats only tiny servings. This person wears layered loose clothing and now has amenorrhea. Her current weight is 95 pounds, a loss of 35 pounds. Which medical diagnosis is most likely?
Answer:
Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:
A privately owned nursing home hires mostly Hispanic women. The hiring manager believes that only Hispanic women could "fit in" and therefore does not hire anyone who does not meet this profile. This practice is likely to beA) permissible because most of the local residents are HispanicB) discriminatory on the basis of national origin in violation of Title VIIC) permissible because of the employment-at-will doctrineD) permissible because the nursing home is a private company
Answer:
B) discriminatory on the basis of national origin in violation of Title VII
Explanation:
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act covers both private sector employers and public sectors employers, including labor organizations.
Regarding employment decisions as it relates to national origin, Title VII states that it is unlawful to use an individual’s national origin as a yardstick or use such as a basis to discriminate or disqualify a job applicant seeking employment based on his nationality. It holds that equal opportunity should be given to all applicants during employment decisions.
The practice of the manager employing only Hispanic women because he believes they "fit in" for the job, thereby depriving other women of other national origin of the same opportunity is likely discriminatory on the basis of national origin. This is a violation of the Title VII Act.
How much do I need to increase my calorie intake?
a) It is not necessary to increase calorie intake during pregnancy;
b) the body can use the energy stored in adipose tissue to support the growth and development of the baby.
c) Double calorie intake to support the growth and development of the baby.
d) No increase is needed during the first trimester, but consume an additional 350 – 450 kcal per day during the second and third trimesters.
e) Consume an extra 500 kcal per day throughout pregnancy to gain about 1 pound per week.
Answer: d) No increase is needed during the first trimester, but consume an additional 350 – 450 Kcal per day during the second and third trimesters.
Explanation:
The women in pregnancy require a calorie intake of about 2,200-2,900 Kcal per day. The gradual increase occurs as time passes and required for the growth of the baby.
In the first trimester, the requirement for extra calories does not increase. But in the second trimester, the requirement for additional calories increases by 340 Kcal calories. By the third trimester, the calorie intake becomes 450 Kcal each day.
Additional calorie demand can be fulfilled by nutrient-dense foods like protein, low fat and fat-free dairy products, fruits and vegetables. Fried food, sweets, and soda drinks must be avoided.
______ can be useful to treat disorders such as phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and anxiety disorders by pairing a stimulus that normally causes an unwanted response with a neutral one, eventually creating desirable involuntary reactions.
Answer:
Classical conditioning can be useful to treat disorders such as phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and anxiety disorders by pairing a stimulus that normally causes an unwanted response with a neutral one, eventually creating desirable involuntary reactions.
Explanation:
Classical conditional is a theory that allows to modify behaviors, it can be use to treat disorders as anxiety. The process involves to associate a bad stimulus with a neutral one, so the axiety that was generated by a certain stimulus, would ceased to happened.
The objective is for a person to associate or make a connection of the unwanted stimulus, witha neutral responde, in order to be able to uncondition the phobic or anxiety response.
One of the most important race tracks in north america originally built in 1894. what race track is this
Answer:Saratoga Race Track
Explanation:
A race track is a facility built solely for the purpose of racing. For example car racing, horse racing, and so on.
One of the famous race tracks in the Eighteens, is the Saratoga race tracks. It is located in the city of Saratoga Springs, New York.
In the 1980's Saratoga Springs was the home of many wealthy Americans and a great centre for tourism as well as gambling.
During the America Civil war(1861-1865), people from cities like New York and Boston came to settle in Saratoga Springs.
August 3, 1863, marked the beginnig of a new 'era' for Saratoga Springs and its inhabitabts. A casino owner, ex-and future congressman John Morrissey organized Saratoga's first ''thoroughbred meet'' a month after the Battle of Gettysburg. The first racing venue was on Union Avenue, later known as Horse Haven. Over 5,000 people came to watch and wager on the eight races.
Which of the following is not a factor that puts students at greater risk for heavy drinking in college?A) parents who disapprove of drinking.B) participation in intramural sports.C) a tendency to feel depressed.D) high stress levels
Answer:
Explanation:
d!
Answer:
d
Explanation:
because education gets you in the head
The nursing care plan for a client in traction specifies regular assessments for venous thromboembolism (VTE). When assessing a client's lower limbs, what sign or symptom is suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Increased warmth of the calfB) Decreased circumference of the calfC) Loss of sensation to the calfD) Pale-appearing calf
Answer:
A) Increased warmth of the calf
Explanation:
Other signs include:
rednessswellingcalf tenderness.Symptoms not included are:
decreased circumference of the calfloss of sensation in the calfpale-appearing calf.