What are the symptoms of undifferentiated connective tissue disease?

Answers

Answer 1

Symptoms of undifferentiated connective tissue disease:

- Low fever

- Hair loss

- Rashes

- Sores or swelling inside of your mouth

- Dry mouth

If you experience any of these symptoms, go to the hospital as soon as possible.


Related Questions

Which of the tollwing essential glands in the neck may be compromised during a thyroidectomy?
A. thymus
B. pituitary
C. parotid
D. parathyroid

Answers

Answer:

D. Parathyroid

Explanation:

The parathyroid is localized on the back of the thyroid gland. Due to their location, in a thyroidectomy, both the thyroid and the parathyroid glands are removed.

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) transport cholesterol from cells to the liver, where it becomes part of bile. HDLs are ____________ lipoproteins because they are used in cell repair and growth and do not tend to accumulate in body spaces where they are not needed.

Answers

Final answer:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are 'beneficial' lipoproteins. They transport excess cholesterol from various body cells to the liver, where the cholesterol is made into bile. They also contribute to cell repair and growth and do not accumulate needlessly within the body.

Explanation:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are often referred to as the "good" cholesterol. They play a critical role in the body's lipid transport system by taking excess cholesterol from cells in different parts of the body to the liver. Once in the liver, the cholesterol becomes part of bile, a digestive liquid. HDLs are known as 'beneficial' lipoproteins due to their role in cell repair and growth and their tendency not to accumulate in places in the body where they're not needed, helping to prevent the build-up of harmful fatty deposits.

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Final answer:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are beneficial because they transport cholesterol from cells to the liver. Here it becomes part of bile and does not accumulate in body spaces where it's not needed. The process involves triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, chylomicrons, and the circulatory system.

Explanation:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are considered beneficial lipoproteins because they transport excess cholesterol from cells to the liver, where it becomes part of bile. The transported cholesterol is then used in cell repair and growth, and does not accumulate in body spaces where it is not needed. HDLs thus help maintain a healthy balance of cholesterol in the body.

Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerides enter epithelial cells and are reincorporated into triglycerides. These triglycerides are subsequently mixed with phospholipids and cholesterol to form a complex called a chylomicron, which is a water-soluble lipoprotein. This chylomicron is transported in the lymphatic vessels and then enters the circulatory system. Once in the bloodstream, the enzyme lipoprotein lipase breaks down the triglycerides of the chylomicrons into free fatty acids and glycerol, which can be used for energy by cells or stored as fat in adipose tissue.

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High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are beneficial because they transport cholesterol from cells to the liver. Here it becomes part of bile and does not accumulate in body spaces where it's not needed. The process involves triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, chylomicrons, and the circulatory system.

Explanation:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are considered beneficial lipoproteins because they transport excess cholesterol from cells to the liver, where it becomes part of bile. The transported cholesterol is then used in cell repair and growth, and does not accumulate in body spaces where it is not needed. HDLs thus help maintain a healthy balance of cholesterol in the body.

Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerides enter epithelial cells and are reincorporated into triglycerides. These triglycerides are subsequently mixed with phospholipids and cholesterol to form a complex called a chylomicron, which is a water-soluble lipoprotein. Thischylomicron is transported in the lymphatic vessels and then enters the circulatory system. Once in the bloodstream, the enzyme lipoprotein lipase breaks down the triglycerides of the chylomicrons into free fatty acids and glycerol, which can be used for energy by cells or stored as fat in adipose tissue.

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Which of the following hormones is oxytocin?
A. insulin
B. thyroxine
C. progesterone
D. pitocin

Answers

Explanation:

thyroxine

The two main actions of oxytocin in the body are contraction of the womb (uterus) during childbirth and lactation. Oxytocin stimulates the uterine muscles to contract and also increases production of prostaglandins, which increase the contractions further.

Neither the participant nor the researcher knows to which group the participant is assigned.
a. Equipoise
b. Double-blind study
c. Cross-over design
d. Randomization

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B double-blind study

Explanation:

In this type of scientific study neither the experimenter nor the researcher knows the study sample, during the period that the experiment lasts, in order not to influence the results.

Growth of a new capillary supply into the region produces granulation tissue.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

Granulation of tissues is also known as vascularization of tissues. The new capillaries that is formed makes the tissue appear granular and pink.

Granulation of tissues can be defined as the infill in the wound.It consists of macrophages, neovas-culture and fibroblast which work in the combination to deposit matrix.

This matrix helps in support and growth of granulation and wound healing.

What is the Icd 10 code for history of myocardial infarction?

Answers

Answer:

ICD-10 I25.2

used to specify a medical diagnosis of old myocardial infarction

No insulin is produced in this kind of diabetes.
a. Type 1
b. Both type1 and type 2
c. Type 2

Answers

Answer:

type 1

Explanation:

type 2 produces non sufficient insulin

Answer/Explanation:

i agree with type 1 because type 2 has no insulin

Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer of:
a. Cervix
b. Ovaries
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Breast

Answers

Answer: a. Cervix

Explanation:

A fear of heights is known as:
a. claustrophobia.
b. acrophobia.
c. thanatophobia.
d. agoraphobia.

Answers

The correct answer is B. Acrophobia

Explanation:

In psychiatry, a phobia is an excessive fear of an object, animal, situation, etc that can be caused by a negative experience or situation. These excessive fears cause distress if the individual is exposed to the object or situation and can even lead to faint or panic attacks. Additionally, as there are different elements that create excessive fear there are also many types of phobias this includes arachnophobia which is the fear of spiders; claustrophobia which is the fear of small spaces; thanatophobia or fear to death; and acrophobia that occurs as there is an excessive fear of heights which makes people have anxiety attacks if they are at high heights, for example, high buildings. Therefore, the fear of heights is known as acrophobia.

A nurse is preventing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Peripheral edema
b. Alopecia
c. Tinnitus
d. Drowsiness

Answers

Answer:

The best answer fromt the choices given to respond to the question: The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which o the following adverse effects, is, D: Drowsiness.

Explanation:

Paroxetine, is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, an antidepressant, that can be used for several conditions, including mental disorders, and some other physiological problems. Because of its action mechanism, which increases the availability of serotonin in the brain, there are various responses that the body can have, which are considered side effects, or adverse effects, of this medication. However, one of the least severe adverse effects, but that must be informed about to the patient, will be drowsiness, as well as others such as vomiting, diarrhea, irregular heart beat, hallucinations, eye problems, among others.  

Answer:

d. Drowsiness

Explanation:

A nurse is preventing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for drowsiness.

Stores of this form of carbohydrate are released from the liver to help maintain constant blood glucose levels.

Answers

Answer:

Glycogen

Explanation:

The glycogen is composed by a glucose multibranch. Muscles are a reserve for the glycogen but the main reserve is the liver. When the insuline levels go down the glycogen is released thanks to the glycogen phsporylase and when the insuline and carbohydrate levels are high in plasma, the insuline takes those carbohydrates to the liver stimulating other enzimes to produce the glycogen.

The glomerular filtration rate would most likely be affected by:
a. hormones
b. changes in glomerular blood pressure
c. pH of blood
d. dietary changes

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option- B.

Explanation:

Glomerular filtration rate or GFR is the rate of the volume of filtrate formed by all renal corpuscles of both kidneys per unit time that is 120 ml/ min. The GFR depends on the pressure gradient in the glomerulus mainly its hydrostatic pressure.

The GFR is directly proportional to the glomerular blood pressure as the blood pressure increases, the hydrostatic pressure also increases which increases the GFR as more water and solutes enter the bowman's capsule. With the decrease in the blood vessels, the GFR decreases.

Thus, option- B is the correct answer.

What fissure separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum? The cerebrum and cerebellum?

Answers

Answer:

Medial longitudinal fissure or Longitudinal fissure

Explanation:

The longitudinal fissure is a deep groove that separates the two hemispheres of the vertebrate brain.

The vermis separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum, while the primary fissure divides its anterior and posterior lobes.

The fissure that separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum is known as the vermis. Structurally, the cerebellum is also divided into the anterior and posterior lobes by the primary fissure. When it comes to distinguishing between the cerebrum and the cerebellum, the transverse fissure is the gap that separates these two major brain regions. Additionally, the cerebrum itself consists of two cerebral hemispheres divided by the longitudinal fissure.

The cerebellum, located behind and below the cerebrum, is integral for coordination of motor movement, balance, equilibrium, and muscle tone. Unlike the cerebrum, which is divided by the longitudinal fissure, the cerebellum's hemispheres are separated by the midline structure called the vermis, with its distinctive folia, and anterior and posterior lobes.

Select the correct statement's about the primary bronchi:
A) are branches arising from the trachea near the level of vertebra C5.
B) carry air toward each lung
C) are more muscular than cartilaginous.
D) are lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
E) All of these are correct

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B: carry air toward each lung.

Explanation:

The primary bronchi arise from the bifurcation of the trachea at the height of the IV thoracic vertebra, to go to the right and left lungs through its parenchyma; Its walls are made up of a fibrocartilaginous ring and carry air from the trachea to the lungs. The bronchi are covered by cylindrical pseudostratified and ciliated epithelia.

Which of the following is the most inferior cartilage of the larynx?
a. thyroid
b. arytenoid
c. corniculate
d. cricoid

Answers

Answer:

Cricoid.

Explanation:

Larynx is also known as voice box and lies above the trachea. Larynx helps in the protection of pharynx while swallowing the food.

Cricoid cartilage is the inferior wall cartilage of larynx. This is a ring shape in structure and present at the back part. This provides the attachment site for muscles, bones and cartilage.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Hypoglycemia can cause
a. elevated blood pressure, flushing of the skin, and increased sensitivity to pain.
b. slow heart rate, dry skin, and constipation.
c. headache, sweating, and shakiness.
d. decreased thirst, urination, and appetite.

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Hypoglycemia is the decrease of blood glucose in the body. Glucose is broken down in the body to release energy. Lack of energy of the body leads to the symptoms listed above

Final answer:

Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood glucose levels. It can cause symptoms such as headache, sweating, and shakiness. option a is correct.

Explanation:

Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood glucose levels. It can cause symptoms such as headache, sweating, and shakiness. Insufficient glucose availability to cells due to hypoglycemia can lead to muscle weakness and, in severe cases, unconsciousness or death if left untreated.

Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood glucose level drops below normal, typically defined as below 70 mg/dL. This condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes treatment, excessive alcohol consumption, certain medications, critical illnesses, hormone deficiencies, and tumors. When blood sugar levels fall too low, the body is unable to function properly, leading to a range of symptoms such as headache, sweating, shakiness, irritability, confusion, and in severe cases, seizures and loss of consciousness.

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Anemia can be caused by a diet lacking in which nutritional substances?
a. calcium and vitamin K
b. magnesium and vitamin C
c. zinc and vitamin A
d. folic acid and vitamin B12

Answers

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Anemia can be caused by a diet lacking in which nutritional substances?, would be, D: Folic acid and vitamin B12.

Explanation:

Anemia, is usually defined as a problem in the formation of red blood cells, or, erythrocites. Usually, there are a number of nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals, that play a vital role in the formation of these erythrocites. One such mineral is iron, which is why, when it is lacking in the diet, it can cause an anemia called iron-deficiency anemia. In this case, the anemia, which is either a reduced production of red-blood cells, or, cells that are incapable of carrying out their duty as oxygen-transporters, is caused by a dietary deficiency. Another form of this can be when the body itself, through an illness, is incapable of producing these cells. However, aside from iron, there are other two nutrients that are vital in the correct formation of erythrocites, and in their being efficent transporters: folic acid, also known as folate, and vitamin B12, both necessarily supplied by the diet, as the body cannot produce them.

The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that A) pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well. B) pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area. C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective. D) pinocytosis requires cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not. E) pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot.

Answers

Answer:

C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective.

Explanation:

The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that, pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective.

Final answer:

The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective.

Explanation:

The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective. Pinocytosis takes in large portions of extracellular material, including water molecules, while receptor-mediated endocytosis regulates the endocytosis of specific substances via receptors that are specific for a certain substance.

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A nurse is administering medications to a client and mistakenly gives hydroxyzine instead of hydralazine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Edema
b. Diplopia
c. Fever
d. Sedation

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D sedation.

Explanation:

hydroxyzine is a medicine that is used as an antihestaminic agent and can cause sedation, because it crosses the blood-brain barrier. In fact it is a medicine that can be used in anxiety and depression.

Final answer:

Hydroxyzine may cause sedation when administered accidentally instead of hydralazine, hence the patient should be closely monitored for this effect.

Explanation:

If a nurse accidentally administers hydroxyzine instead of hydralazine, the client should be monitored for signs of sedation. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine medication that is commonly used to treat allergy symptoms. However, one potential side effect of this medication is drowsiness or sedation, as it tends to suppress the central nervous system. Hydralazine, on the other hand, is a medication used to treat high blood pressure and its mistaking could lead to adverse effects that are related to blood pressure regulation.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has acute heart failure and is receiving furosemide via IV bolus. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates a desired therapeutic effect?
a. Increased sputum production
b. Decreased weight
c. Decreased blood glucose level
d. Increased blood pressure

Answers

Answer:

I'm say d it's wild guess

The moment of inertia in angular kinematics or kinetics corresponds to mass in linear kinematics or kinetics.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Rotational and linear motions are analogous to each other.

The inertia of a body in a linear motion is its mass. This can be seen from Newton's second law of thermodynamics:

F = ma

The larger the value of the force, the larger the inertia is (m) and the slower it accelerates.

The inertia of a body in a rotational body is it moment of inertia (I). Both I and m are same but I depends on both the shape and mass of the rotating body.

For example, The inertia of a solid disk with mass M and radius R is:

[tex]I=\frac {1}{2}\times MR^2[/tex]

Hence, the statement is true.

Final answer:

The moment of inertia is indeed analogous to mass in linear motion, as it measures an object's resistance to change in angular velocity. It is calculated based on the mass distribution and distance to the axis of rotation, with the shape and center of mass being crucial determinants.

Explanation:

The statement that the moment of inertia in angular kinematics or kinetics corresponds to mass in linear kinematics or kinetics is true. The moment of inertia is a measure of an object’s resistance to change in its angular velocity about a fixed axis of rotation. Just as a more massive object will have greater resistance to changes in linear velocity, an object with a larger moment of inertia will resist changes in angular velocity. The moment of inertia depends on the distribution of mass and the distance of mass from the axis of rotation. Hence, similar to the linear momentum equation p = mv, the angular momentum L is defined as the product of moment of inertia I and angular velocity ω, where L = Iω. It is also important to note that the shape of the object and the location of the center of mass greatly influence the moment of inertia.

The moment of inertia has units of mass multiplied by distance squared (kg · m²), further emphasizing its role as the rotational counterpart to mass in linear motion. In considering the dynamics of rotational motion, the kinetic energy is distributed between linear and rotational components based on the moment of inertia. For example, a hollow cylinder with mass distributed farther from the axis will have a larger moment of inertia compared to a solid cylinder of the same mass, influencing its rotational kinetic energy and subsequent angular momentum during motion.

The last equation, summarizing the relationship between torque, moment of inertia, and angular acceleration (net τ = Iα), is analogous to Newton's law in linear motion (F = ma), further highlighting the correspondence between moment of inertia and mass in their respective domains of motion.

Which of the following is NOT a normal constituent of lymph?
a. water
b. dietary lipids
c. red blood cells
d. lymphocytes
e. ions

Answers

Answer:

Red blood cells

Explanation:

Lymph is a colorless fluid that contains white blood cells and the fluid drains into the bloodstream through the lymphatic system. The lymph provide protection from the pathogens and helps in providing immunity to the organisms.

Lymphatic system contains water, lymphocytes, ions and dietary lipids. Red blood cells are absent in lymph which makes it a colorless fluid.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

The resilient substance that keeps bone ends from crushing when compressed is __________?

Answers

Answer:

The resilient substance that keeps bone ends from crushing when compressed is Articular Cartilage.

Explanation:

Articular cartilage -

Articular cartilage is a smooth tissue that covers the ends of the bone joints ( at the junction of two bones ).

The important function of these cartilage is to allow smooth movement during movement of joints , a healthy cartilage on the joints makes movement easier and friction less , as the cartilage allows the bones to glide over easily.

These Articular cartilage can get damaged by any injury , as cartilage does not have the capability to heal itself, doctors perform surgical techniques to repair the damage.

From letters A to E which is correctly described?
A) nasopharynx: usually receives only air, helps equalize pressure in inner ear
B) oropharynx: receives food and air, contains palatine and lingual tonsils
C) laryngopharynx: receives only food, lined with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B and C are correct

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B: Oropharynx.

Explanation:

The most posterior part of the mouth is known as an oropharynx, it corresponds anatomically to the throat; It extends from the soft palate to the hyoid bone, it also includes the back of the tongue. It is also the place where food, liquids and saliva travel when swallowed.

Which of the following glands are holocrine glands?
a) Pancreas
b) Sweat glands
c) Salivary glands
d) Sebaceous glands

Answers

Answer:

b) Sweat glands and d) sebaceous glands

Explanation:

They are holocrine because the plasma membrane is broken releasing the secretion. In the sebaceous glands the sebum released contain dead cells, those cells could be looked at the duct and in the sebum.

The sweat glands might be holocrine and apocrine. the holocrine are in the hands, feet and frontal face. The dead cells can be found in the sweat and in the ducts of the glands.

Which cartilage attaches to the posterior end of the vocal ligament and is important in manipulating it to produce speech?
a. thyroid cartilage
b. cricoid cartilage
c. arytenoid cartilage
d. epiglottis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C. arytenoid cartilage.

Explanation:

The arytenoid cartilages creates the part of the larynx to which the vocal folds and vocal ligament attach at posterior end.

The arytenoid cartilage is a pyramid like piece of cartilage that located in the larynx. These cartilage are two are in number and makes a pair. It is essential to make sound or voices.

Thus, the correct answer is option C. arytenoid cartilage.

What are the bone cell functions of osteocyte, osteoblast, osteoclast?

Answers

Answer:

Osteocyte:

Osteocyte may be defined the bone forming cell and present inside a lacuna. They are involved in the synthesis and modification of bone cells. There receptors play an important role in the functional regulation of bone marrow.

Osteoblast:

Osteoblast cells contain a single nucleus and involved in the bone synthesis. They work together with the connective tissue in the process of formation of bone. They are involved in the formation of mineralized tissue.

Osteoclast:

Osteoclast cell breaks the bone tissue. The breakdown of bone tissue is important for the process of bone remodeling and bone repair. These cells are also involved in the bone resorption process by secreting the enzyme called collagenase.

Salmonella typhi can move into a chronic asymptomatic carrier status in what organ of the body?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Gallbladder
d) Intestinal lining

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D Intestinal lining

Explanation:

salmonella typhi is a bacterium that is acquired orally either by contaminated food or water, its characteristic clinical condition is a diarrheal disease, chronic carriers continue to expel these bacteria through their stools and spread the infection if not treated properly for a long time.

What are the functions of each layer of the skin?

Answers

Answer:

The skin is divided into three layers, which are:

- epidermis: it is the outermost part of the skin containing keratinocytes, melanocytes, lymphocytes (which are those that protect against infections) and langerhans cells. The epidermis is the body's most important barrier to the external environment of the skin. it is also the one that gives the color.

- dermis: is the layer located under the epidermis. It is the second line of defense against trauma. Another function is to nourish the epidermis.

- Hypodermis: it is also called subcutaneous tissue or superficial fascia. Its main function is to store fat; It helps maintain body temperature and gives mobility to the entire skin.

As blood leaves the left ventricle, it passes:
a. through the bicuspid valve.
b. through the aortic semilunar valve.
c. into the right atrium.
d. into the right ventricle.
e. into the pulmonary trunk.

Answers

Final answer:

The correct answer is that blood passes through the aortic semilunar valve as it leaves the left ventricle. The heart then pumps this oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

Explanation:

As blood leaves the left ventricle, it passes through the aortic semilunar valve. This is the way the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. The bicuspid valve is actually situated between the left atrium and the left ventricle and regulates blood flow from the former to the latter. Blood does not directly move into the right atrium or the right ventricle from the left ventricle. The pulmonary trunk, on the other hand, carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.

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Final answer:

Blood exits the left ventricle of the heart by passing through the aortic semilunar valve. It does not enter the right atrium or right ventricle directly from there nor proceed into the pulmonary trunk, as these structures are involved with other stages or circuits of the blood flow.

Explanation:

When blood departs from the left ventricle, in the heart's cardiac cycle, it advances through the aortic semilunar valve (option b). Post the atrioventricular or bicuspid valve (option a), the blood enters the left ventricle. It does not flow into the right atrium (option c) or right ventricle (option d) directly from the left ventricle as each side of the heart is separated by a wall, called the septum. Furthermore, it does not propel into the pulmonary trunk (option e) directly from the left ventricle as this route is involved in the pulmonary circuit for deoxygenated blood. Therefore, the blood's next step after being in the left ventricle is to pass through the aortic semilunar valve to journey further into the systemic circulation to deliver oxygen throughout the body.

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