Which of the following are basic components of the Hardy-Weinberg model?
a.) Allele frequencies, number of individuals in the population
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
c.) Allele frequencies, phenotype frequencies
d.) Allele frequencies in a subset of the population

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings

Explanation:

b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings

Answer 2
Final answer:

The Hardy-Weinberg model includes two basic components: the allele frequencies and the frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings.

Explanation:

The Hardy-Weinberg model is a principle in population genetics that describes the genetic variation in a population that is not evolving. The basic components of the Hardy-Weinberg model are allele frequencies and the frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is option b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings.

This principle makes two fundamental assumptions - that the population is very large to minimize genetic drift, and there is random mating in the population. It essentially states that the frequency of alleles in a population will remain constant over generations unless acted upon by evolutionary influences such as genetic drift, mutation, migration or selection.

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Related Questions

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Which of the following does not generally occur?

A. A fertilized egg splitting into two embryos
B. A single sperm fertilizing a single egg
C. Two sperm fertilizing two different eggs at the same time
D. Two different sperm both fertilizing the same egg

Answers

A fertilized egg splitting into two embryoa

Answer:

D

Explanation:

why natural selection might favor traits that keep 2 individuals from populations that had been reproductively isolated for a long time from mating (pre-zygotic isolation), even if hybrid offspring technically would still be possible if mating were to take place?

Answers

Answer:

Pre-zygotic isolation prevents a zygote from being formed that cannot survive or provide more offspring in the future

Explanation:

If pre-zygotic isolation was not in place hybrid offspring would be possible, but then there might be hybrid inviability, sterility and breakdown (post-zygotic isolation). Inviability when the hybrid does not survive to reproduction. Sterility is when the hybrid is not able to produce offspring. Breakdown is when the hybrid is viable and fertile but its offspring is not. Pre-zygotic isolation is in place to prevent wasting energy on reproducing and creating offspring that would not be able to add to the species.

Final answer:

Natural selection might favor traits that prevent individuals from two long-time reproductively isolated populations from mating, notably when hybrids have reduced fitness. These traits strengthen pre-zygotic barriers, ensuring the species remain separate. This process, called reinforcement, drives divergence between the species.

Explanation:

Natural selection might favor traits that prevent individuals from two long-time reproductively isolated populations from mating, creating pre-zygotic isolation due to various reasons. The process of reproductive isolation plays a crucial role in this context. Genetic and phenotypic divergence over time might affect characteristics influencing reproduction, making mating less likely or the offspring less viable.

Pre-zygotic mechanisms include traits that control mating behavior, such as mating time, sensitivity to pheromones, choice of mating sites, and courtship rituals. Physiological changes might also prevent successful fertilization. If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids, they would develop reproductive barriers to prevent hybrid production and ensure that they remain separate species.

Instances where hybrids have reduced fitness compared to the parent species, there is a process called reinforcement that further drives divergence between the two species. This is because the low success of the hybrids reinforces the original speciation, leading to the strengthening of pre-zygotic barriers.

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Meningitis and food poisoning are two examples of illness caused by which type of pathogen?

A. Parasite
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
D. Fungi

Answers

Answer: B. Bacteria

       

Explanation:

Meningitis is disease in which the inflammation or swelling of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord takes place. This results in symptoms of fever, stiff neck and headache. It is caused by a bacterial infection in the membranes of the brain and spinal cord.

Food poisoning is a condition which is caused by the consumption of contaminated food. Infectious agents like virus, bacteria and parasites. These infectious agents consume the food and liberate their toxins which makes the food unfit for human consumption. This involves symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

On the basis of the above explanation, bacteria is the correct option. As it is the pathogen which is responsible for both meningitis and food poisoning.

________ is one of a group of sleep disorders in which unwanted, disruptive motor activity and/or experiences during sleep play a role. A. insomnia B. NREM phase C. parasomnia D. REM phase

Answers

Answer:

I believe the answer is parasomnia

Explanation:

Parsomnia are conditions that produce unwanted, disruptive motor activity such as sleep walking.

Answer:

C. parasomnia

Explanation:

Parasomnia is one of a group of sleep disorders in which unwanted, disruptive motor activity and/or experiences during sleep play a role.

An example of a mineral composed of isolated tetrahedra is the gemstone peridot. peridot is a member of the _____________ group, the largest group of minerals with isolated tetrahedron structure.

Answers

Answer:

An example of a mineral composed of isolated tetrahedra is the gemstone peridot. peridot is a member of the Olivine group, the largest group of minerals with isolated tetrahedron structure.

Olivine should be the group name .

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Which neurotransmitter would you expect to see in high quantities, if you could, in the brain of someone who has just been rewarded with a large raise in salary for all his or her hard work?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be option D. dopamine.

Explanation:

Dopamine is a catecholamine neurotransmitters produce from tyrosine. It plays a role in different pathways, is involved in many pathological conditions  including the reward circuit, and addiction.

Dopamine is attached to reward center, so if you feel interested or excited for anything, then the levels of dopamine will increase in the prefrontal cortex. High level of dopamin motivates brain to remember facts or incidents presented to one.

Thus, the correct answer would be option D. dopamine.

Which of the following does NOT help increase conversion of short-term to long-term memories?

memory consolidation
your emotional state
association
rehearsal

Answers

Answer:

Memory consolidation

Explanation:

Short term memory is stored in the brain for relatively short period of time especially for few minutes. Long term memory is stored in brain for long period ( years or lifetime).

Short term memory can be converted into the long term memory by association, rehearsal and involved with emotional state. Memory consolidation is the process of learning new things and store them in previously stored memories. Hence, memory consolidation does not increase the conversion of short memory to long term memory.

Thus, the correct answer is option (1).

Twenty- five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is:

Answers

Answer: the most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is Erythrogenic toxin.

Explanation:

Erythrogenic toxins are streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins and are secreted by strains of the bacterium Streptococcus Pyogenes.

The likely cause of food intoxication at a church picnic with symptoms showing in 3-6 hours is Staphylococcal food poisoning, caused by toxins from Staphylococcus aureus, generally treated with oral rehydration therapy.

The most likely cause of food intoxication after attending a church picnic where attendees developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within three to six hours is Staphylococcal food poisoning.

This condition is caused by the ingestion of enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus when it grows in food, particularly in protein-rich foods like ham and cream sauces that are present in casseroles.

These toxins can cause the symptoms mentioned above and are typically resolved within 24 to 48 hours.

Risk factors include leaving food at temperatures below 60 °C (140 °F), which allows the bacteria to grow, and poor food handling practices.

Oral rehydration therapy is important for treatment of dehydration caused by the resulting diarrhea.

Which of the following is a factor that, by itself, does not promote widespread changes in allele or genotype frequencies? a. New mutation d. Migration b. Natural selection e. Nonrandom mating c. Genetic drift

Answers

Answer:

A new mutation

Explanation:

A mutation refers to the random changes in the DNA of organisms. A mutation changes the allele and genotype frequencies by the introduction of a new allele in the gene pool.

However, mutations are not the major factor responsible for changes in the gene pool of a population as mutations are rare. The rate of mutations is very slow and does not allow it to serve as a major factor to change the allele and genotype frequencies.

Random mating does not, by itself, promote widespread changes in allele or genotype frequencies within a population. Instead, mutation and gene flow are the processes that can introduce new genetic variation into a population.

The question you've asked about the factors that do not promote widespread changes in allele or genotype frequencies refers to the concept of genetic equilibrium in population genetics. Given the options provided, random mating (option c) is the factor that, by itself, does not necessarily cause changes in allele frequencies within a population. On the contrary, it is assumed for a population in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, a state where allele and genotype frequencies remain constant from generation to generation assuming no other evolutionary forces are acting upon the population. Looking at the evolutionary forces that can introduce new genetic variation into a population, the correct answers are mutation and gene flow (option b), as these processes can directly increase the genetic diversity within a population. Mutation introduces new alleles by changes in the DNA sequence, and gene flow occurs when individuals move between populations, bringing new alleles into the gene pool.

Stimulation of a cell by a molecule that the cell itself makes is called
stimulation

Answers

Answer:

Autocrine stimulation

Explanation:

In autocrine signaling, the cell produces ligands that are also able to bind receptors on its surface. This is different from paracrine signaling whereby a ligand produced by a cell does not bind its surface receptors but does so on other cell types. These two types of signaling are important for the development of an organism.

Stimulation of a cell by its own signaling molecule is termed autocrine signaling, involving cytokines and regulating multiple cellular processes.

Stimulation of a cell by a molecule that the cell itself makes is called autocrine signaling. This process allows a cell to send a signal to itself, which can then bind to its own receptors on the cell surface or inside the cell, leading to a variety of responses. Autocrine signals are part of a complex system of cell communication that includes cytokines, protein molecules that act as chemical signals produced by cells in response to stimulation. This type of signaling is crucial for various cellular functions including development, inflammatory responses, and programmed cell death, particularly if the cell is infected with a virus. In addition to affecting the signaling cell, autocrine signals can influence neighboring cells, allowing for coordinated responses among a group of similar cells.

For each molecule of glucose processed during glycolysis, the net yield is ________.

Answers

Answer:

For each molecule of glucose processed during glycolysis, the net yield is two molecules of NADH, two of ATP, and two of pyruvate.

Answer:

Two molecules of NADH, two of ATP, and two of pyruvate.

Explanation:

For each molecule of glucose processed during glycolysis, the net yield is two molecules of NADH, two of ATP, and two of pyruvate.

In 1987 a group of molecular geneticists at the University of California at Berkeley offered support for the idea that modern humans (AMHs) arose fairly recently in Africa, then spread out and colonized the world. The geneticists analyzed genetic markers in placentas donated by 147 women whose ancestors came from Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Asia, New Guinea, and Australia. By estimating the number of mutations that had taken place in the mithochondrial DNA (mtDNA) of each of these samples, the researchers concluded that......

A. everyone alive today has mtDNA that descends from a woman (dubbed Eve) who lived in sub-Saharan Africa around 200,000 years ago and that her descendants left Africa no more than 135,000 years ago.
B. everyone alive today has mtDNA that descents from a woman (dubbed Eve) who lived in Asia aorund 50,000 years ago and that her descendants left Asia 100,000 years ago.
C. establishing a "genetic clock" to model human evolution is reliable only when focusing on 50,000 years into the past.
D. everyone alive counts Neandertals of western Europe as their ancestor.
E. Neanderthals coexisted with modern humans in the Middle East for the least 2,000 years.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

mtDNA is inherited from the mother of a child, this is because mitochondria are in the cytoplasm and the father's gamete (sperm cell) contributes very little or no cytoplasm to the zygote. We know that mitochondrial Eve came from Africa because the mutations in the mtDNA occurred before the out-of-Africa dispersal.

The medial edge of the popliteal fossa is created by which muscle?
A.
Gracilis
B.
Semitendinosus
C.
Biceps femoris
D.
All of the above

Answers

Answer:

B.  Semitendinosus

Explanation:

The medial edge of the popliteal fossa is created by  Semitendinosus muscles.

The correct answer is B. Semitendinosus

How can zoning laws be beneficial to a city's residents? a. They prevent new business development. b. They can prevent new development that would harm established residents. c. They limit the maximum height of buildings. d. They restrict who can live in a city.

Answers

Answer:

They can prevent new development that would harm established residents.- b.

Answer:

The correct answer is option b. "They can prevent new development that would harm established residents".

Explanation:

Zoning laws, also known as zoning ordinance, is a series of regulations that define how properties at certain geographic locations can be used. These laws are beneficial to city's residents by preventing new developments that would harm established residents. For instance, a company that emits gas pollutants can not be established at residential zones because that action would harm's the city's residents health.

When a blood vessel is damaged, blood loss can have side effects ranging from minor to severe. To prevent blood loss, several __________ and calcium ions participate in the formation of a blood clot.

Answers

Answer:

PLATELETS

They have clotting factors that help along with calcium

When a blood vessel is damaged, blood loss can have side effects ranging from minor to severe. To prevent blood loss, several protein clotting factors and calcium ions participate in the formation of a blood clot.

.Blood clotting is a complex process that involves a series of steps aimed at stopping bleeding and beginning the repair of damaged vessels.

The initial response to vascular injury is a vascular spasm, where the smooth muscle in the vessel wall contracts. Then, platelets converge to form a platelet plug. At the site of the injury, these platelets release contents that activate more platelets and interact with coagulation factors, like thrombin, to convert fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, creating a clot.

Coagulation factors circulate as inactive precursors in the bloodstream and are activated by a process called proteolytic cleavage. They work together in a cascade, ultimately resulting in the formation of a stable clot. Vitamin K and calcium ions are essential for this process, with the former necessary for the liver to produce many of the clotting factors, and the latter designated as factor IV in the clotting cascade. An adequate intake of vitamin K and calcium is thus important for proper blood clotting.

Which of the following does not describe a function of aggressive animal behavior?

A. Aggressive behavior is displayed to establish territorial boundaries.
B. Aggressive behavior leads to fights that allow strong animals kill off weaker members of the species.
C. Aggressive behavior is displayed to establish hierarchy without violence.
D. Aggressive behavior is displayed to determine who is allowed to mate.

Answers

Answer:

Option (C).

Explanation:

Aggressive behavior is a type of animal behavior that has the potential to harm the other animals. Aggressive behavior can be used for the establishment of territorial boundaries and protect the other members of the population.

Aggressive behavior is generally shown by the conflict or fight between the species. The strong animals kill the weaker animals in case of predatory type of aggressive behavior. The hierarchy in case of aggressive behavior cannot be performed without violence. Violence or fight must occur between the species in case of aggressive behavior.

Thus, the correct answer is option (C).

B. Aggressive behavior leads to fights that allow strong animals to kill off weaker members of the species.

Aggressive behavior does commonly lead to fights, but it usually ends when the weaker animal retreats, not to the death.

WILL MARK AS BRAINLIEST!!!

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the rest of the body?

A. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right atrium

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation: Left ventricle. With the thickest muscle mass of all the chambers, the left ventricle is the hardest pumping part of the heart, as it pumps blood that flows to the heart and rest of the body other than the lungs.

Answer:

its "C"

Explanation:

From the left ventricle the blood goes through the aortic semilunar valve to get to the rest of the body through the systemic circuit.

Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the combined processes of glycolysis and cellular respiration?1 breaking down ATP, so that ADP and P can be reused2. producing complex molecules from chemical building blocks3 the breakdown of glucose to carbon dioxide and water4 transforming the energy in glucose and related molecules in a chemical form that cells can use for work5 catabolism of sugars and related compounds

Answers

Answer:

4. transforming the energy in glucose and related molecules in a chemical form that cells can use for work

Explanation:

Glycolysis breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate which is transformed into acetyl CoA to enter the Kreb's cycle. Kreb's cycle breakdown the acetyl CoA into CO2 and H2O. The energy stored in the glucose molecule is released during glycolysis and Kreb's cycle. The released energy is stored in the form of NADH and FADH2 as well as in few molecules of ATP.

The NADH and FADH2 enter the final step of cellular respiration, the oxidative phosphorylation. Here, NADH and FADH2 are oxidized with the help of electron transport chain (ETC). During the transfer of electrons through ETC, the proton motive force is generated which then helps in ATP synthesis.

Hence, the three steps of cellular respiration (glycolysis + Kreb's cycle + oxidative phosphorylation) retrieve the energy from nutrients such as glucose and store it in the form of ATP. ATP is used by cells as an energy source for various other functions.  

Name four groups of organic compounds found in living things.

Answers

Answer:

•Protiens

•Nucleic Acids

•Lipids

•Carbohydrates

Final answer:

The four main groups of organic compounds in living things are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, each playing a vital role in energy supply, structural support, metabolic reactions, and genetic information storage.

Explanation:

The four major classes of organic compounds essential for life processes in living things are:


 
 
 
 

Carbohydrates serve as a primary source of energy and structural components. Monomers, such as glucose, are the building blocks for carbohydrate polymers like starch and glycogen.

Proteins, composed of amino acid monomers, perform a vast array of functions including catalysis of metabolic reactions, DNA replication, and transport of molecules.

Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules. Fats, oils, waxes, and steroids are examples of lipids that serve as energy storage and constitute cellular membranes.

Nucleic Acids, such as DNA and RNA, are polymers made of nucleotide monomers and are essential for storing and transmitting genetic information.

What best explains the observation of an enzyme being selective in the reaction it catalyzes?
a. Reaction-specific enzymes assume a fit by folding around the most numerous substrate molecules.
b. Molecules and active sites vary in size; only properly sized molecules can fit.
c. There is a precise compatibility between an enzyme's active site and the substrate molecule.
d. Specificity refers to the action of the enzyme, such as hydrolysis, and relatively few molecules can be hydrolyzed.
e. Active sites carry slight negative charges, while substrates tend to carry slight positive charges.

Answers

Answer:

its c.

Explanation:

i had this question on a study guide.

Morgan obtains a score on a screening device for depression, which indicates the presence of significant depression. Morgan's psychologist is most likely to do what at this point in the assessment process?

Answers

Answer: Recommend further assessment.

Explanation:

Psychologists can usually tell if you have depression by asking you specific questions and doing a physical exam. Psychologists may, however, ask for lab tests to rule out other diagnoses. They will likely do blood tests to check for medical conditions that may cause depressive symptoms.

Following glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2 with some net gain of ATP. Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process, however, is stored in the form of which of the following molecules?
(A) NADH
(B) glucose
(C) pyruvate
(D) acetyl-CoA

Answers

Answer: Energy at this point is stored as NADH

Explanation: Glycolysis is a catabolic reaction that is made of many steps that breaks down food to give off energy in a form of ATP. Pyruvate the product of glycolysis, is converted to Acetyl-coA using enzyme pryruvate dehydrogenase. During this process between krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation NAD takens electron (reduction) and turns to NADH(oxidation) which travels to the mitochondria, our power house, where its converted to energy using redox reactions. To sum up, energy from glucose molecules are transported and exist in forms of NAD to NADH.

Final answer:

The energy from the original glucose molecule before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation is primarily stored in NADH (A), which carries high-energy electrons for ATP production.

Explanation:

Before oxidative phosphorylation, most of the energy from the original glucose molecule has been transferred to high-energy electron carriers during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. The correct answer is (A) NADH as it carries electrons that are later used in the electron transport chain to generate a significant amount of ATP. After glycolysis, pyruvate is decarboxylated forming acetyl-CoA, which then enters the citric acid cycle. Here, two high-energy electrons are removed and accepted by NAD+ to form NADH. This step is critical because each NADH will enter the electron transport chain to produce more ATP than that generated through substrate-level phosphorylation alone.

After the conversion of pyruvate into the acetyl group, a molecule of carbon dioxide and two high-energy electrons are removed. The carbon dioxide accounts for two of the six carbons of the original glucose molecule. The electrons are picked up by NAD+, and the NADH carries the electrons to a later pathway for ATP production.

At this point, most of the energy from the original glucose molecule is stored in the form of NADH.

Which processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell?

Answers

glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm!

Answer:

the processes like cell division, metabolism, cell digestion, etc.

Explanation:

The cytoplasm is the clear liquid part of the cell. It contains many ions, proteins, amino acids, and cellular organelles.

The cytoplasm always in motion in the cell known as Brownian motion. It contains many cell organelles such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes, peroxisomes, etc. As it contains many organelles and ions, many cellular functions also occur in the cytoplasm

The major processes take place in the cytoplasm are cellular metabolism or cellular respiration, transport, cell division, protein synthesis.

The translation occurs in the cytoplasm. The mRNA from the nucleus enters into the cytoplasm and takes part in protein synthesis with the help of ribosomes, amino acids.  

The transport of different ions occurs in the cytoplasm to the nucleus and other cells by diffusion.

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
(A) medulla
(B) cerebellum
(C) hypothalamus
(D) thalamus

Answers

Answer:

C. Hypothalamus

Explanation:

Also known as the "thirst center", the hypothalamus controls the autonomic functions like hunger. It regulates temperature and it also holds the "master gland" or otherwise known as the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland controls the functions of the other endocrine glands.

The best answer would be the hypothalamus.

Final answer:

The hypothalamus in the brain controls temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst. It links the nervous system to the endocrine system and plays a significant role in maintaining homeostasis.

Explanation:

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions primarily associated with the hypothalamus. This part of the brain is like a command center, directly regulating many different body functions. The hypothalamus connects the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, playing a crucial role in maintaining the body's homeostasis.

For example, it helps regulate body temperature by triggering sweat when you're hot or shivering when you're cold. For thirst control, the hypothalamus monitors the concentration of blood and initiates drinking behavior when it's too concentrated.

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Radiation is a frequent method of sterilization. It is effective because it causes damage to DNA. However, prions, the agents that cause diseases such as mad cow disease, are unaffected by these treatments because they lack DNA. What is the definition of a prion?View Available Hint(s)Radiation is a frequent method of sterilization. It is effective because it causes damage to DNA. However, prions, the agents that cause diseases such as mad cow disease, are unaffected by these treatments because they lack DNA. What is the definition of a prion?Prions are proteins folded into the correct configuration.Prions are small RNA molecules that do not encode proteins.Prions are proteins that are folded incorrectly.Prions are small carbohydrate molecules that do not encode DNA.

Answers

Prions are proteins that are folded incorrectly.

While brain efficiency can vary from person to person, certain activities seem to correlate with less cognitive decline. Which individual is MOST likely to have cognitive deficits as part of brain senescence?

Answers

Answer:

Elderly  people are more likely to have cognitive deficits as part of brain senescence.

Explanation:

Aging is a gradual and inevitable process throughout living beings. Along with this aging occurs brain senescence, which is a process of losing brain connections due to lack of intellectual activities.

While this is not a rule, the elderly are the most common people going through the brain senescence process. For this reason, the elderly are also the most common people to develop cognitive deficits.

Cognitive Deficit consists of the learning disability that some people have and that ends up limiting their life in many ways. The problem is directly related to the mental capacity of information assimilation, which causes the individual to develop intellectual limitations.

describe the process of protein formation in the eukaryotic cell. Name all organelles involved in the production of the protein, their function nd how the protein is moved from organelle to organelle and to the destination of the functional protein

Answers

Eukaryotic cells have the compartmentalized genetic material, that is, it is surrounded by a membrane called a library that separates it from the cytoplasm. The synthesis of proteins in this cell happens as follows:

Protein synthesis is a rapid process that occurs in all cells of the body, more precisely ribosomes, organelles found in the cytoplasm and the rough endoplasmic reticulum. This process can be divided into three steps:

1. Transcript

The message contained in the cistron (portion of the DNA that contains the genetic information needed for protein synthesis) is transcribed by messenger RNA (mRNA). In this process, the bases are similar: DNA adenine binds to RNA uracil, DNA thymine with RNA adenine, DNA cytosine with RNA guanine, and so on, with RNA enzyme intervening. -polymerase.  The sequence of 3 nitrogenous bases of mRNA forms the codon, responsible for the coding of amino acids. Thus, the mRNA molecule replicates the DNA message, migrates from the nucleus to ribosomes, crosses the pores of the plasma membrane and forms a template for protein synthesis.

2. Activation of Amino Acids

At this stage, transporter RNA (tRNA) acts, which takes the amino acids dispersed in the cytoplasm from digestion to the ribosomes. In one of the regions of tRNA is the anticodon, a sequence of 3 bases complementary to the mRNA codon.  The activation of amino acids is given by specific enzymes, which attach themselves to the carrier RNA, which forms the aa-tRNA complex, giving rise to the anticode, a trio of codons complementary to the mRNA codons. For this process to take place there must be power, which is provided by the ATP.

3. Translation

In the translation phase, the message contained in the mRNA is decoded and the ribosome uses it to synthesize the protein according to the given information.  

Ribosomes are formed by two subunits. In the smaller subunit, it binds to mRNA, in the larger subunit there are two sites (1 and 2), where each of these sites can join two tRNA molecules. An enzyme present in the larger subunit makes the peptide link between amino acids, the carrier RNA returns to the cytoplasm to join another amino acid. And so, the ribosome goes through the mRNA and causes the link between amino acids.

The process is terminated when the ribosome passes a stop codon and no tRNA enters the ribosome because they no longer have complementary sequences to the stop codons. Then, the ribosome is released from mRNA, the specific protein is formed and released from the ribosome.

To form a 60 amino acid protein, for example, it takes 1 mRNA, 60 codons (each corresponding to one amino acid), 180 nitrogenous bases (each sequence of 3 bases yields one amino acid), 1 ribosome and 60 tRNAs (each tRNA carries an amino acid). It can be noted, then, that this is a highly complex process, as there is the intervention of several agents.

Capsular hydrostatic pressure is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane. (True/False)

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Capsular hydrostatic pressure is not the main force that pushes water and solutes out of the blood and through the filtration membrane.  On the contrary, this pressure acts against the filtration membrane, making it difficult for water and solutes to escape from the blood.

Increasing this pressure decreases the infiltration rate and causes obstruction of the urinary tract that tends to accumulate urine, causing a lot of pain to the patient with  Renal Failure.

The process of chromosome reduction occurs during:
fertilization
simple cell division - mitosis
meiosis
mutation

Answers

Answer: It occurs during meiosis

Explanation: because during that process  there is a reduction of the number of chromosomes to the half, that is to say, from  diploid cells (ex: 46 chromosomes in the human being)  it will result haploid cells called gametes (23 chromosomes). That is: there is a reduction of genetic material during meiosis.

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I hope it is useful for you!. Maria

Answer:

It occurs during meiosis

Which of the following is a positive effect that cities have on the environment? a. Garbage from New York is distributed to Kentucky to fill up abandoned mines. b. Concentrating people in cities contains water and air pollutants, which are removed by greenbelts. c. Cities give people places to live with smaller land use. d. Air pollution from the Midwest and "Rustbelt" states is exported to the northeastern United States and Canada.

Answers

Answer:

Cities give people places to live with smaller land use. -c.

Answer:

C). Cities give people places to live with smaller land use

Explanation:

The reason why answer choice "C). Cities give people places to live with smaller land use" is the correct answer is because cities allow a higher population without using so much land.

Cities are more populated than rural areas, that's because cities can hold more people in it than in rural places.

In cities, you would typically see more buildings that are getting taller, which allows the building to accommodate more people in it. Buildings that are getting higher could have more people in it than homes that take up more land for a small home.

Rural areas would typically have more homes that take up more land, due to the fact that the homeowners would own most of the land around it. The homes in rural areas are mostly occupied by a family, not allowing more people to live in it.

This is the reason why the population density is higher in cities than in rural areas.

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