Answer:
b. During replication there is both a leading strand and a lagging strand .
c. Each replication bubble has two replication forks.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication to replicate the long chromosomes at a higher rate.
The two DNA strands have opposite polarity, that is, 5' end of the one DNA strand is present opposite to the 3' end of the other DNA strand. DNA replication occurs only in 5' to 3' direction and the direction of the movement of the replication fork is also 5' to 3' direction.
To allow the DNA replication in 5' to 3' direction on both strands, one strand is replicated discontinuously in the direction opposite to the movement of the replication fork.
The discontinuously replicated strand is lagging strand while the other one is the leading strand.
DNA replication in eukaryotes occurs bidirectionally as two replication forks are formed at each replication bubble, one at each end of the replication bubble.
The presence of multiple origins of replication and the bidirectional process allows the replication of large eukaryotic DNA at a considerable fast speed.
Final answer:
In eukaryotic cells, DNA replication involves multiple origins of replication which allow for the efficient copying of their typically linear chromosomes. b) Both leading and lagging strands are synthesized, with c) replication proceeding with two forks per bubble.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the characteristics of eukaryotic DNA replication. In eukaryotic chromosomes, which are typically linear, you would find multiple origins of replication. DNA replication in eukaryotes involves b) both a leading strand and lagging strand. Each new double helix at the replication fork moves bi-directionally, creating c) two replication forks per replication bubble. Contrary to an option given in the problem, replication in eukaryotes is not stopped by Ter proteins; this is a mechanism found in bacterial DNA replication.
Each chromosome in a eukaryotic cell has many thousands of origins of replication, initiating replication at multiple points to ensure the DNA can be copied efficiently within the necessary timeframe. The replication bubbles formed by the origins coalesce as replication forks meet, resulting in the duplication of DNA. The replication process includes enzymes like DNA polymerases, helicases, and ligases, and is efficient thanks to the orchestrated function of these proteins.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because
a. only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments.
b. intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
c. only target cells have enzymes that break down aldosterone.
d. only in target cells is aldosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade that turns genes on.
Answer: The correct answer is option b.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid, that is, a steroidal hormone that plays important role in regulating blood pressure as well as the levels of sodium and potassium in the plasma.
It is released from adrenal gland. Being steroidal in nature, it is capable of bypassing plasma membrane easily.
However, its receptors are present inside the cell, that is, in cytoplasm.
These receptors are expressed or present only in the target cells due to which this hormone produces its effects only in the target cells.
Once bound to intracellular receptor, the cell signalling results in alterations in gene expression which produces the desired effects.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, like aldosterone, affect only target cells because intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
Explanation:Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, affect only target cells because intracellular receptors are present only in target cells. These receptors are specific to the signaling molecule and are located inside the cell. When aldosterone enters a target cell, it binds to its corresponding intracellular receptor, leading to a series of events that ultimately activate or inhibit specific genes responsible for cellular responses. This selectivity ensures that only certain cells respond to aldosterone.
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Write a short essay (about 100–150 words) evaluating whether changes to an organism’s physical environment are likely to result in evolutionary change. Use an example to support your reasoning.
Answer:
Explanation:
Change in an organism's physical environment will cause the organism to adapt to fit in the surrounding environment. This process is called as adaptation. This process causes the evolution of the organism into a new species. The environment affects the evolution of the species , because change in environment put pressure on the species to adapt in change environmental conditions. Natural selection brings the change in the organism as the organism best suited for the environment survives.The example of evolution is the giraffe neck. Giraffe evolved by the development of tall neck slowly by increasing their neck length, so that they can eat leaf from the tall plants.
Changes to an organism's physical environment can lead to evolutionary change within a population through the process of natural selection. The example of the peppered moth during the Industrial Revolution demonstrates this, where the dark-colored moths became more prevalent due to their increased camouflage against pollution-darkened trees.
Explanation:Changes to an organism's physical environment can indeed catalyze evolutionary change within a population. This process, described by the theory of natural selection, posits that individuals with phenotypes best suited to the new environment will survive and produce more offspring. Over time, these genetic traits become more common within the population, leading to evolutionary change.
For example, the peppered moth (Biston betularia) during the Industrial Revolution provided evidence of this process. Prior to industrialization, the white-colored moths were more common due to their camouflage against lichen-covered trees. Once pollution darkened the trees, the once rare dark-colored moths became more common because they were less visible to predators.
This example clearly illustrates how a population, not individual organisms, evolves over generations through changes led by environmental pressures, which in turn affects the prevalence of certain genetic traits.
Which of the following involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells?
a.binary fission c.biofilms
b.endospore formation d.photoautotrophy
Answer: c. Biofilm
Explanation:
Metabolic cooperation between prokaryotes
allows them to use the resources that they could not use when they are living as single cell. Bio film is the example of the metabolic cooperation.
Bio films are formed by the colonizing of single type of prokaryote such as bacteria and they facilitate the growth of other bacteria on the surface by secreting the substances essential for their growth.
Hence, the correct option is (c) biofilms.
The process that involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells is biofilms. These are communities of microorganisms that cooperate metabolically to carry out functions
Explanation:The process that involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells is c. biofilms. Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that stick to each other and often to a surface. These adherent cells are frequently embedded within a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS). Biofilms may form on living or non-living surfaces and can be prevalent in natural, industrial, and hospital settings. They certainly demonstrate the metabolically cooperative characteristics of prokaryotic cells, where the cells work together to carry out functions that they couldn't perform individually.
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The molecular structure of water contains rwo atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen when water reaches its boiling point and turns into water vapor what happens to its molecular structure
.
Answer:
Water molecules are isolated in its vapour form.
Explanation:
Water has polar molecules in all its form but when water becomes vapour its molecules became isolated. Their bond angles were bent at 105 degree. All the negative charges that is produced in water’s boiling point started concentrating the oxygen molecules and the positives were concentrating the hydrogen molecules.
However, the protons were partially positively charged. The electrons become 10 times greater near the oxygen than hydrogen.
Conclude from ratios of progeny in a dihybrid cross whether two genes are linked.
Answer:
Linked genes may be defined as the genes that are present on the same chromosomes and transfer to the next generation as well. The linked gene are responsible for the formation of recombination in the progeny. The genes that follow the independent assortment are present on different chromosome.
If the ratio of progeny is 9:3:3:1, then the genes are not linked. The deviation from this ration explains that the genes are linked. The parents number are more in than recombinant in case of linkage. The recombination frequency can never exceeds 50%.
What information about the structure of DNA was obtained from X-ray crystallographic data?
Answer:
With the crystallographic data you can obtain the space between the base paris on the DNA, yo can also predict that the DNA have a double helix structure, and with this information and some chemical simulations you can obtain the exact amount of nucleotides in each turn.
Why are there nucleotides (A, T, G, and C) in the master mix? What are the other components of the master mix, and what are their functions?
Answer: Nucleotides are the monomers used for DNA synthesis. The mix also contains a template, DNA taq polymerase, buffer, reverse and foward primer and magnesium ions.
Explanation:
A PCR master mix is a premixed solution that has all of the components for a Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). This reaction is a laboratory technique that amplifies small fragments of DNA into millions of copies.
The master mix used for that contains dNTPs (nucleotides). In the DNA there are four types of nucleotides that are differentiated by the nitrogen base they have: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C) and thymine (T).
Since nucleotides are the monomers that make DNA, they are found in the mix because they are the material for DNA synthesis.
The reaction mixture also requires;
DNA template, the sequence of DNA to be amplifiedDNA taq polymerase, a heat resistant enzyme that assembles nucleotides into a new DNASalt buffer, for an optimum ionic environment and pHOligonucleotide primers (reverse and foward), pieces of DNA complementary to the template. Each hybridizes with one of the DNA chains. Magnesium ions, a catalyst required by DNA polymerase to workThe nucleotides (A, T, G, and C) in the master mix provide the building blocks for DNA synthesis during PCR, while other components such as DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium ions, stabilizers, surfactants, and preservatives maintain optimal conditions for efficient and specific DNA amplification.
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) master mix contains nucleotides (A, T, G, and C) to supply the building blocks required for DNA synthesis throughout the amplification process.
The PCR master mix usually consists of the following additional ingredients:
1. DNA polymerase: This enzyme, which is typically thermostable and works with given nucleotides and template DNA strands to catalyse the synthesis of new DNA strands, is known as Taq polymerase.
2. Buffer: During the PCR process, this pH-stabilizing solution keeps the pH at the ideal level for the DNA polymerase activity.
3. Magnesium ions (Mg2+): Vital cofactors for DNA polymerase activity, enabling the enzyme's binding to template DNA and nucleotide incorporation into the expanding DNA strand.
4. Stabilisers and Enhancers: A number of substances, including betaine, DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide), and bovine serum albumin (BSA), are frequently added to the master mix to increase the PCR reaction's robustness, specificity, and efficiency—especially in difficult or GC-rich templates.
5. Surfactants: To promote reagent mixing and lower surface tension, agents like Tween-20 can be added, improving the reaction mixture's homogeneity.
6. Preservatives: To stop reagent deterioration and contamination during storage, certain master mixes may include preservatives.
Because the master mix contains all the necessary components to provide ideal circumstances for DNA amplification, such as the right buffer conditions, enzyme activity, nucleotide availability, and reaction specificity, each component is essential to the success of the PCR reaction.
Which of the following are important features for transcription?
a. promoter
b. RNA polymerase
c. 5' and 3' UTRs
d. ORF
e. all of the above
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A and B.
Explanation:
Transcription is a process which synthesizes a complementary molecule of DNA which acts a messenger called RNA.
The gene contains a sequence of the nucleotide at the beginning of gene called promoter sequence. The promoter sequence has the ability to attach an RNA synthesizing enzyme called RNA polymerase.
The RNA polymerase is the enzyme which synthesizes the RNA molecules using a single strand of DNA called template strand. RNA polymerase binds nucleotide at 3' end of the strand thus proceeding the strand in 5' to 3' direction.
The promoter and RNA polymerase begins the process of transcription and thus option-A and B is the correct answer.
The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valance electrons in a sulfur atom, predict the molecular formula of the compound.
a. HS c.H2S
b. HS2 d. H4S
Answer:
H2S.
Explanation:
Ions may be defined as the element that contains either positive or negative charge over them. Two types of ions are cations and anions. The outermost electrons are involved in the formation of ions.
The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Its outermost electronic configuration is K=2, L= 8, M= 6. The sulfur requres two more electrons to complete its orbit and accquire -2 charge.
H S
+1 -2
Then, the formula will be H2S.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
What are baroreceptors? Chemoreceptors?
Answer:
Baroreceptors:
Baroreceptors are the type of mechanical receptors. These receptors are located in the carotid sinus and become active in response to the change in the pressure in the heart. They have the ability to sense the information and relay it to the brain.
Chemoreceptors:
Chemoreceptors area also known as chemo sensors as they have the ability to detect the change in the chemical substance of the body. These receptors are present on the taste buds. They have the ability to generate the action potential and relay information.
Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
a. AGGTCC
TCCAGG
b. CCTTCC
GCAAGG
c. GAATCC
CTTAGG
d. GGATCC
CCTAGG
e. GTATCC
CATAGG
Answer:
GGATCC
CCTAGG.
Explanation:
Pallindromic sequence may be defined as the sequence of the nucleotides that reads in the certain direction on which the strand reads and they are complementary to each other.
These sequences when read in 5' to 3' direction, the sequence is similar from 3' to 5' direction as well. The sequence GGATCC when reads from the oppposite direction results in the same sequence CCTAGG. Hence, these are pallindromic sequences.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Differentiate between parental and recombinant gametes.
Answer: The two types of gametes are possible for when they are following genes that are on the same chromosomes. If they are crossing over, it does not occur, the products are known as Parental Gametes. If they are crossing over, the products are Recombinant Gametes. It is usually the simple matter that determine which of these gametes are recombinant gametes.
The difference between these two genes, is that are far apart and the frequency of recombination of genes is fifty percent. These genes that are closely located on the chromosome exhibit only have a few cross overs. The gametes that have recombined chromosomes, are known as Recombinant Gametes while the Parent Gametes are carrying on non-recombinant chromosomes.
I hope this helps you!
If a female who is a carrier for a sex-linked trait mateswith
a male who expresses the trait, what is the chace that her sonwill
express the trait?
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) all of her sons will express the trait
D) none of her sons will express the trait
for lifesaver, explain the reasoning for
youranswer.......
Answer:
B) 1/2
Explanation:
A sex linked trait is passed via sex chromosomes. Here the given trait is X linked recessive because female carrier is not possible for X linked dominant trait.
For X linked recessive trait:
Carrier female = XCXc
Affected male = XcY
Their progeny:
XC Xc
Xc XCXc XcXc
Y XCY XcY
Out of the sons, half will be not affected ( XCY ) and half will be affected ( XcY )
Hence, half of the sons will express the trait.
If 24% of an organism's DNA is thymine, what percent is cytosine?
a. 24%
b. 26%
c. 48%
d. 52%
Answer:
B. 26%
Explanation:
According to the Chargaff rule, we know that the quantity of thymine and adenine, and the quantity of cytosine and guanine are exactly the same in the DNA.
We can conclude that if there is 24% of thymine, there is also 24% of Adenine. Because those bases pair with each other and there is going to be the same percentage of them both in the DNA.
The sum of the 4 bases is going to be 100% in the DNA
[tex]A+T+C+G=100%[/tex]
Since 24% of the organism is thymine 24% is going to be adenine
[tex]24+24+C+G=100[/tex]
To know how much is missing from the equation we would have to subtract the total 48%
[tex]C+G=100-48\\C+G=52\\[/tex]
This means that the remaining 52% is composed by the cytosine-guanine pairs. Since the pairs are equal in quantity in the DNA, we have to divide this number by 2 to have the amount of each one
[tex]C=\frac{52}{2} \\C=26[/tex]
The answer is: B.26% is going to be the percent of cytosine and also guanine in the DNA
Distinguish between the effects of mutation in somatic and germ-line cells.
Answer:
Somatic cells:
When normal body cells mutate usually the effects are harmful in different ways which end up killing the cell.
Another type of scenario is where the cells survives but cells from the immune system recognized it and end up killing it.
sometimes somatics cells can accumulate mutations and survive which leads to a tumor or cancer.
Germ-line:
When germ-line cells produce gametes with mutations this mutations can end up killing the embryo. If the embryo survives the mutation can generate all sorts of genetic disorders, the spectrum here is massive and depends on the site of the DNA mutation.
The primary storage site for sperm is the seminal vesicles.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. false.
Explanation:
The seminal vesicles are the site of production of the seminal fluid which makes 60 % of the total seminal vesicles. The seminal vesicles do not store the sperm.
The primary storage site of the sperm in seminiferous tubules and tubular storage sites for the sperm is epididymis.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. false.
Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
a. Autotrophs, but not heterotrophs, can nourish themselves beginning with CO2 and other nutrients that are inorganic.
b. Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment.
c. Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs.
d. Only heterotrophs have mitochondria.
Answer:
a. Autotrophs, but not heterotrophs, can nourish themselves beginning with CO2 and other nutrients that are inorganic.
or
b. Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment.
Correct option is A. Autotrophs can create organic molecules from inorganic nutrients like CO², whereas heterotrophs need organic compounds to survive.
The correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs is that autotrophs, but not heterotrophs, can nourish themselves beginning with CO² and other nutrients that are inorganic. This means that autotrophs are capable of synthesizing organic molecules from inorganic nutrients, such as carbon dioxide and water through the process of photosynthesis. They do not need pre-packaged organic compounds to survive, unlike heterotrophs, which require organic forms of carbon and depend on the complex organic compounds produced by autotrophs for nutrition.
compare the relative energy storage of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. (NEED ANSWER QUICKLY NEED TO TURN THIS IN TONIGHT OR IM GONNA FAIL PLS HELP)
Proteins
Protein is used for the growth and repair of cells and can be used as a source of energy if carbohydrate and fat reserves are low.
Proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids.
After digestion amino acids are absorbed into the bloodstream and brought to cells that reassemble them into proteins needed by the body (e.g. enzymes).
Foods high in protein include fish and eggs.
Cellulose, starch and glycogen are complex carbohydrates. They are long chain of sugars joined together.
Carbohydrates
Carbohydrates provide energy. There are two types - simple and complex.
Simple carbohydrates are sugars, like glucose and lactose. They are a fast acting source of energy, like biscuits or energy bars.
Complex carbohydrates are a source of slow release energy, like rice and pasta.
Cellulose – is found in plant cell walls and cannot be digested by humans. However, as fibre, it helps the muscles of the intestinal wall push food through the digestive system
Starch – is broken down by digestive enzymes into glucose, which can be used by cells to make energy
Glycogen – is a carbohydrate store within the human body and can be converted into glucose when levels are low
Fats/lipids
Fats are a store of energy, providing double the energy that carbohydrates and proteins do.
They are made up of fatty acids and glycerol.
Foods high in fat include cheese, butter and oils.
Lipids (fats) provide the most efficient and dense energy storage, making them suitable for long-term energy reserves, while carbohydrates serve as a readily available energy source for quick bursts of activity. Proteins are not primarily used for energy storage due to their critical roles in various cellular functions.
The comparison of the relative energy storage of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins:
Carbohydrates are a quick and easily accessible source of energy for the body. They are stored in the form of glycogen in the liver and muscles. Glycogen can be rapidly broken down into glucose to provide energy during times of high demand, such as exercise. However, the storage capacity for glycogen is relatively limited compared to other energy storage molecules.
Lipids, specifically triglycerides, are highly efficient energy storage molecules. They provide the most energy per unit mass compared to carbohydrates and proteins. Lipids are stored in adipose tissue throughout the body. They have a lower water content compared to carbohydrates, making them more compact and providing a dense energy source. This energy reserve is important for long-term energy needs and insulation.
Proteins are not typically a primary energy storage molecule. Their main functions include structural support, enzymatic activity, and cell signaling. While proteins can be broken down into amino acids that can be used for energy in times of extreme need, the body prefers to preserve proteins for their essential functions rather than utilizing them as a primary energy source.
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Which description accurately compares cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
A) Photosynthesis uses energy captured from sunlight to power the reduction of carbon dioxide to sugars; cellular respiration oxidizes sugars to yield energy for the cell.
B) The ATP produced via cellular respiration is needed to power the reactions of photosynthesis
C) The pathways of photosynthesis are those of cellular respiration run in reverse.
D) Photosynthesis captures energy from sunlight to oxidize carbon dioxide to sugars; cellular respiration reduces these sugars to yield energy for the cell.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is a process which uses sunlight energy to synthesize food in the form of glucose. The process takes place in the chloroplast in two stages: light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions.
The light-independent reaction produces to convert the carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to glucose through the Calvin cycle. The carbon gets fixed and reduced form+4 state to +1 state.
Respiration is the process which oxidizes the glucose molecule to produce energy in the form of ATP molecules. This ATP is utilized by the cell to perform various functions.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Type of nitrogenous base with a double ring found in DNA and RNA:
a. Ribose
b. purine
c. pyrimidine
d. cytosine
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B (purine).
Explanation:
Nucleic acid structure is made up of monomer unit called nucleotide. Each nucleotide is composed of a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and five types of nitrogenous bases.
The nitrogenous bases are categorized in two forms the purines (adenine and guanine ) and the pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine and uracil). The "purines" contain double rings in their structure due to which they appear larger in size than pyrimidines which are made up of single rings.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
Which method allows the rapid and simultaneous screening of the expression of thousands of genes?
a. RT-PCR
b. Northern blot analysis
c. immunoprecipitation
d. microarray
e. haplotype identification
Answer:
d. microarray
Explanation:
Microarray is a type of chip that is allows high-throughput screening of multiple genes. They are quicker and produce large data that is usually analyzed using bioinformatic tools.
The size of one copy of the human genome is approximately 3 billion base pairs, and it contains about 25,000 genes organized into 23 chromosomes. a. Human chromosomes vary in size. What would you predict is the size of the average chromosome? b. Assuming that genes are spread evenly among chromosomes, how many genes does an average human chromosome contain? c. About half of the DNA in chromosomes contains genes. How large (in base pairs) is an average human gene?
Answer:
a. Average size of chomosomes = [tex]130.435*10^6[/tex].
b. Average amount of genes per chromosome = 1086,95 genes per chromosome in average.
c. Average length of chromosomes = 1,5 billion base pairs.
Explanation:
a. Assuming the whole human genome is about 3 billion base pairs representing 23 chromosomes (one set), the size of an average chromosome can be estimated as [tex]3*10^9[/tex] base pairs /23, which equals to more [tex]130,435*10^6[/tex] (more than 130 million base pairs).
This results due to the fact that 23 chromosomes contain [tex]3*10^9[/tex] base pairs (3 billion bp). Then 1 one them (in average) contains [tex]3*10^9[/tex] base pairs/23. So,
Average size of chomosomes: [tex]3*10^9[/tex] /23=[tex]130.435*10^6[/tex]
b. If one assumes that genes are spread evenly among chromosomes, then the total amount of genes would be spread among the 23 chromosomes. Then, if one divides 25000 by 23, we are getting the amount of genes per chromosome.
Average amount of genes per chromosome: 25.000/23=1086,95 genes per chromosome in average.
c. If about half of the DNA in chromosomes contains genes, then half of 3 billion base pairs (representing 23 chromosomes) would be representing genes. Thus:
Average length of chromosomes: 3 billion base pairs / 2= 1,5 billion base pairs= [tex]1,5*10^9[/tex] base pairs
The average human chromosome is approximately 130 million base pairs and contains about 1087 genes. The average gene size is roughly 238,000 base pairs.
Explanation:a. The size of one copy of the human genome is about 3 billion base pairs. Given that human chromosomes number 23, the size of an average human chromosome would be roughly 130 million base pairs (approximately, 3 billion divided by 23).
b. If we take into account that the total number of genes is about 25,000, and they are spread evenly among the chromosomes, following the same logic, an average human chromosome would contain about 1,087 genes (approximately, 25,000 divided by 23).
c. Regarding the size of a gene in base pairs, it's worth noting that only half of the DNA in chromosomes contains genes, so each gene occupies a space of 2 times its actual size. If we take an average chromosome size of 130 million base pairs, each gene will comprise roughly 238,000 base pairs (130 million divided by 1087 times 2).
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Why do scientists think that all forms of life on earth have a common origin?
Answer:
There are several facts that linked life to a common origin such as:
Comparative anatomy, where different species have common traits. This includes homology and analogy, vestigial structures. Fossil record.Species distribution in different continents, some others.I believe the most valuable evidence is that DNA is the molecule that carries information in all living things ( eukaryotes and prokaryotes) even viruses contain either DNA o RNA. Is difficult to think that life started in different ways but then converged in the same kind of molecule to carry the information.
The ATP and NADPH produces in the light reaction are used to drive the synthesis of sugars from CO2.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-true.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis reaction proceeds in two phases: light-dependent and light-independent reaction.
During light-dependent reaction which takes place in thylakoid membrane intermediates like ATP and NADPH are produced through electron transport chain.
These intermediates are directly utilized in the light-independent reaction which performs cyclic reactions known as the Calvin cycle. Calvin cycle produces glucose molecules using ATP and NADPH in the reactions.
Thus, option-true is the correct answer.
Chlorophyll a is the primary plant pigment capturing light
forphotosynthesis and is a green color. How is this so when most
lightenergy for photosynthesis derives from red and
bluewavelengths?
Answer:
Chlorophyll a absorbs maximum light in blue and red regions of the spectrum while reflecting the green light.
Explanation:
The light reflected by any object reaches our eyes. “Chlorophyll-a” molecules are the pigments that do not absorb the green light and reflect it. The reflected green light imparts the chlorophyll-rich leaves a green color.
Since the absorption peak for Chlorophyll-a lies in red and blue regions of the spectrum, the maximum rate of photosynthesis is experienced in the presence of red and blue wavelengths.
The light absorbed by Chlorophyll-a drives light reactions to produce ATP and NADPH which in turn are consumed during the Calvin cycle to fix CO2 into glucose.
Which of these groups of animals currently has the greatest percentage of threatened species?
a. amphibians
b. birds
c. mammals
d. reptiles
e. fishes
Answer:
Amphibians, the total threated species is 31,8%
Explanation:
The IUCN ( International Union for Conservation of Nature) is an environmental organization that helps and influences societies around the world to preserve biodiversity so that human progress, economic diversity and the conservation of nature can work together, to ensure that any natural resource usage is ecologically sustainable.
The IUCN created a list of threatened species. A threatened species is an organism that is vulnerable to lose all of its population shortly. The list was created to state and report the status of conservation of animals and plants. The IUCN studies species under several conditions and criteria to create a list of categories directed toward classifying animals and taking action when needed:
Extinct (EX): the last individual of the species has died. Extinct in the wild (EW): the last individuals is known only to survive in captivity Critically endangered (CR): the species is in extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate futureEndangered (EN): the species is in very high risk of extinction in the wild shortly.Vulnerable (VU): the species is a high risk of extinction in the wild in medium-term futureNearly Threatened (NT): the species is close to being at high risk of extinction soon Low Concern (LC): the species is unlikely to become extinct soon.Deficient Data (DD): Not enough information about the species to classify it. Not Evaluated (NE) : the species have not been evaluated yetThe definition of threatened according to the IUCN is a species that is classified in CR (Critically endangered) , EN (Endangered) , and VU (Vulnerable)
So according to this definition in the IUCN red list finder, you would have the following numbers:
a. Amphibians
Total: 6771Threatened: CR: 575, EN:944; VU: 638 Total threatened: 2157Percentage: 31,8%b. Birds
Total: 11133Threatened by category: CR: 225, EN: 469, VU: 799Total threatened: 1493Percentage: 13,4%c. mammals
Total: 5801Threatened by category: CR: 203, EN: 489, VU:528 Total threatened: 1220Percentage: 21%d. reptiles
Total: 7541Threatened by category: CR: 303, EN: 547, VU: 517Total threatened: 1367Percentage: 18,1%e. fishes
Total: 18449Threatened by category: CR: 549, EN: 771, VU: 1174Total threatened: 2494Percentage: 13,5%Answer: Amphibians, the total threated species is 31,8%
Final answer:
Amphibians have the greatest percentage of threatened species among the groups listed, with 29% of all amphibians classified as threatened. This calls for urgent conservation efforts to mitigate further losses.
Explanation:
Among the options provided, the group of animals currently with the greatest percentage of threatened species is amphibians. According to the International Union for the Conservation of Nature, up to 29 percent of all amphibians are classified as threatened, a rate higher than that for other groups mentioned, such as mammals, birds, reptiles, and fishes. This alarming percentage highlights the urgent need for conservation efforts to prevent further losses within this class.
Amphibians are facing numerous threats, including habitat loss, pollution, climate change, and infectious diseases, which collectively contribute to their high rate of endangerment. Efforts like the Biodiversity Action Plan, ratified by 188 countries, aim to protect these vital species and their habitats. Understanding and supporting such conservation initiatives is crucial for preserving the biodiversity of our planet.
Distinguish between a monohybrid cross and a testcross.
Answer:
Monohybrid cross:
Monohybrid cross may be defined as the cross done by taking single trait at a time. The ratio of the monohybrid cross by the pure parent breed result in the formation of 3:1 phenotype in the second generation.The genotype ratio is 1:2:1.
Test cross:
Test cross may be defined as the cross between the unknown genotype and the recessive parents. This cross is done to determine whether the genotype is heterozygous or the homozygous dominant trait. The ration of the cross may vary depending on the genotype of the organism.
Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the respiratory system?
a. external nares
b. uvula
c. epiglottis
d. choanae
e. mouth
Answer:
Uvula.
Explanation:
Respiration may be defined as the process of exchange of gases between the body tissue, lungs and the environment. Oxygen is inhaled and carbon dioxide is exhaled out during the process of respiration.
The choanae, external nares, epiglottis and mouth plays an important role in respiration. Uvula is mainly involved in the production of the salivary gland. The uvula moistens the area and also involved in the speech process. Hence, uvula do not play important role in respiration.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Among the listed structures, the uvula is not a part of the respiratory system, it is a part of the digestive system and contributes in swallowing and speech.
Explanation:The structure that is NOT a part of the respiratory system among the given options is (b) the uvula. The respiratory system includes structures through which air passes when we breathe, such as the external nares (nostrils), epiglottis (a flap that prevents food from entering the windpipe), choanae (rear openings of the nasal cavities), and the mouth. But the uvula, a dangling structure at the back of the throat, is a part of the digestive system, not the respiratory system. It plays a role in swallowing and speech.
Learn more about Respiratory System here:https://brainly.com/question/4190530
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Describe the helical and coiled-coil structures of either collagen or α-keratin. What type of covalent bond holds the coiled-coils in staggered arrangements to form larger fibrous structures of this protein?
Answer:
Collagen is an extracellular matrix protein and one of the most abundant protein in the body. Its triple-helical structure is a result of the 3 coiled chains. Each chain mainly comprises of Glycine, Proline and Hydroxyproline. The Glycine hydrogen bonds with residues of the adjacent chain while the proline and hydroxyproline C-N bonds provide stability in the structure.
Explanation:
Vitamins are inorganic compounds used by the body for metabolism.
a. True
b. False
The correct answer is A. False
Explanation:
Vitamins are organic compounds or molecules rather than inorganic ones which means they are mainly composed of carbon and they are related to living organism different from minerals that come from non-living elements such as water or earth. Vitamins are essential for the metabolism in an organism including functions such as growth due to this, they are necessary but in most cases only in small quantities. Additionally, vitamins are obtained through diet or similar rather than synthesize by the organism. According to this, it is false "Vitamins are inorganic compounds used by the body for metabolism" because even though they are necessary for the metabolism, vitamins are organic and not inorganic compounds.