Which property is shared by the processes of replication and transcription?
a. they both take place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
b. one strand of nucleic acid serves as a template for synthesis of another.
c. they both make copies of dna.
d. they require ribsomes.
e. they both use the nucleic acid uracil?

Answers

Answer 1
I think the answer is C. I hope it's right.
Answer 2

Answer:

b. one strand of nucleic acid serves as a template for synthesis of another.

Explanation:

Replication is the process of synthesis of new DNA molecules using the existing DNA strands as a template.  

Transcription is the process of synthesis of RNA using the template DNA strand to copy its nucleotide sequence.  

Both replication and transcription use existing DNA strands as a template to make new strands of nucleic acids. Both processes occur inside the nucleus.  


Related Questions

How does budding in yeast resemble fission in paramecium? How does it Differ?

Answers

they're both forms of asexual reproduction

Binary fission and budding are both the procedures of asexual reproduction. They are both very identical; however, they do possess certain differences. They are regarded as the most basic methods of asexual reproduction.  

Binary fission takes place majorly in unicellular species. When the species has to reproduce its cell goes via the phases of mitosis. However, when it attains cytokinesis it divides into two distinct organisms.  

Budding is another kind of asexual reproduction. In this process, a new species called bud originates from the original organism. As soon as the bud possess the tendency to survive on its own it distinguishes itself from the original organism.  

It takes place in both the multicellular organisms and unicellular organisms. However, unlike binary fission, it takes place from an unequal division of the reproducing organism.  


Complex carbohydrates, such as fruits and vegetables, are universally viewed as healthier than simple carbohydrates like sugar. Why are complex carbohydrates a better dietary choice?

Answers

I'm not a biologist, so I don't know the actual answer. But my best guess is that there is more in fruits and vegetables than just simple sugars or even complex carbohydrates. There are vitamins for example. Some of the vegetables have simple proteins which are much easier to break down that the complex ones found in meat. 

Explanation:

Complex carbohydrates like fruits, vegetables, whole grains, beans, peas etc. They contain vitamins, minerals and fibres, that's why they are the source of long lasting energy because they take long time to digest.

Complex carbohydrates are healthier than simple carbohydrates like sugar are present in fruits, table sugar, soft drinks, milk and milk products etc. They digested quickly not the long lasting as complex carbohydrates, they can easily broken down by the body.

Complex are better dietary choice because it contains more nutrients than simple carbs. They are high in fibre and digested slowly, this is the better way for weight control.

A(n) __________ is not associated with structural deformation.

Answers

A stratigraphic trap is not associated with structural deformation.

Hope this helps !

Photon
Hey there :)

Stratigraphic pinch out Traps

It is the termination by thinning or tampering out of a reservoir/lake against a nonporous [Not letting water or air pass through] sealing rock

Explain what happens in the large intestine to cause diarrhea or constipation. how does the function of the large intestine relate to another key resource?

Answers

Answer: Diarrhea or constipation can be caused when the muscles of the large intestine do not function properly

Explanation: Diarrhea is caused when an infection or illness cause the body to release too much water into the intestines in order to flush them out. Constipation is the opposite; not enough fiber causes a backup of stool in the large intestine. The colon's main job is to absorb water, nutrients and electrolytes from partially digested food, the rest is pushed down as waste (feaces)

Muscles in the colon work to get rid of the body's waste products. They contract and relax as they push the undigested food through the large intestine. If the muscles in the colon don't work at the right speed for proper digestion or if the coordination with muscles in the rectum or pelvis is interrupted, the contents of the colon can't move along smoothly. When this happens, a person can feel the belly cramps, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea  

Diarrhea and constipation are caused by disruptions in the GI tract's normal function in the large intestine, resulting in loose or hardened stools.

Diarrhea occurs when the large intestine discharges its contents before water reabsorption is complete, resulting in loose stools. Conversely, constipation happens when the colon retains contents for too long, leading to hardened feces. Both conditions are caused by disruptions in the GI tract's normal function.

A patient with which type of burn should always get professional medical help?

Answers

When the burn is to the 3rd degree, it is most severe and can be down to the bone so it is important to seek medical treatment for that.

In the process of genetic engineering, what is the correct order of the steps?

Answers

Final answer:

The correct order of steps in the process of genetic engineering is: identify desirable gene, isolate gene, insert gene into vector, introduce vector into host organism, allow replication and expression, and screen for successful incorporation and expression.

Explanation:

The correct order of steps in the process of genetic engineering is as follows:

Identify the desirable trait or gene that you want to introduce into the organism.Isolate the gene from the source organism using molecular cloning techniques.Insert the gene into a vector, such as a plasmid.Introduce the vector into the host organism, often using a technique called transformation.Allow the host organism to replicate and express the foreign gene.Screen for successful incorporation of the foreign gene and verify its expression.

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Describe how comparing early development can help scientists learn about the relatedness of species. give an example!

Answers

Talking of early development we are referring to the embryonic stage of development. The closer similarity of their embryos shows a relationship between the organisms. For example an adult chimpanzee and an adult human being look so different and on the other hand their embryos look so much alike.

Final answer:

Comparing early development in species helps to understand their relatedness by identifying homologous structures stemming from common ancestry. Embryonic similarities such as gill slits that appear in all vertebrates demonstrate shared evolutionary paths. These comparisons aid in the construction of phylogenetic trees to visualize evolutionary relationships.

Explanation:

Understanding Species Relatedness Through Early Development

Comparing the early development of different species can reveal their evolutionary relationships. Scientists look for homologous structures, which are features that are similar due to shared ancestry. An example of this is the presence of gill slits in the embryos of all vertebrates, including humans, which indicates a common ancestral origin. Moreover, scientists use embryology, the study of an organism's development from embryo to adult, to find these connections. The development patterns can help distinguish between homologies and analogies, the latter being similarities due to convergent evolution rather than common ancestry.

For instance, while bats, birds, and insects all have evolved wings for flight, the embryonic origin and structural makeup of these wings differ significantly. Birds and bats have homologous structures in their wings suggesting a closer evolutionary relationship, whereas insect wings are analogous and do not imply close relatedness. Such comparisons enable researchers to construct phylogenetic trees, illustrating the evolutionary pathways of different species.

True or false: the smallest unit in a worksheet is a cell.

Answers

The answer would be true.

Answer:

True

Explanation:

4. Energy is supplied by which of the following? (5 points)
fats
carbohydrates
proteins
all of the above,

Answers

the answer ould be d. all of the above

Mr. jones has a large kidney stone that is obstructing the flow of urine in his left kidney, resulting in kidney enlargement and backing up of urine into his ureter. this is known as:

Answers

Kidney stones that are present are called calculi (plural of calculus: "stone" in Latin). They may or may not ever obstruct, but when they do it is termed "Nephrolithiasis."

Process that requires oxygen is called

Answers

The energy releasing process that does not require oxygen is called anaerobic respiration. This is mainly used by organisms who live in areas with little oxygen such as at the bottom of the ocean.
Aerobic oxygen dependent

The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors. Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow?
A.The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to faster blood flow.
B. High blood viscosity increases the resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slower blood flow.
C. Low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slower blood flow.
D.The changing of the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance and leads to faster blood flow.

Answers

A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.

Viscosity refers to the thickness of blood. This thickness is caused by the number of red blood cells. Thick blood travels through blood vessels at a slower rate than thin blood.

High blood viscosity increases the resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slower blood flow describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow. Thus, option B is correct.

What is viscosity?

The thickness of a liquid in known as viscosity or its property of being sticky and its consistency which is created due to the friction present inside it.The unit of viscosity is newton- second per square meter and it is written as pascal-second in SI system.

There are several methods by which viscosity is measured and these are rotational rheometry, non-contact rheology, vibrating viscometers, capillary viscometers.

The viscosity of honey is 3,200.0, viscosity of peanut butter is 250,000.0 it means different items have different viscosity.

Therefore, High blood viscosity increases the resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slower blood flow describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow. Thus, option B is correct.

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The Rh factor is a protein found on the surface of red blood cells. The Rh factor must be matched during blood transfusions. Rh+ individuals may receive blood from Rh+ and Rh- donors while Rh- individuals can only receive Rh- blood. Rh+ individuals possess at least one dominant allele (R) for the trait while Rh- individuals are homozygous recessive. Two Rh+ parents have children. What is the probability that any offspring will NOT be able to receive a transfusion from either parent?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be 25 percent.

It is the case when both the parents are heterozygous for the trait that is, both are Rr in genotype.

Thus, both the parents would produce two types of gametes one of which contain R and the other one would contain r.

The cross would result in the production of the offspring with three types of genotypes; RR, Rr, and rr.

The three genotypes would be present in the ration 1 (RR): 2 (Rr): 1 (rr).

Thus, only one out of four would be Rh- in phenotype. Hence, only 25 percent is the probability that the offspring would not be able to receive blood from either parent.

According to the Punnett square, it is likely that 1 out of 4 offspring will be homozygous recessive or Rh-. That means there is a 25% that offspring will be Rh- and will not be able to receive blood from either parent.

Select all that apply. All cells have similar structures, including _____. a plasma membrane vacuoles cell wall cytoplasm chloroplasts protoplasm NEXT

Answers

I'm going with cell wall because all cells have to have a "shield" per say 
Hey there,

The answer is:

Select all that apply. All cells have similar structures, including plasma membrane and cytoplasm.

Hope I have helped you!

The least amount of atp is produced in which stages of cellular respiration

Answers

Cellular respiration uses energy in glucose to make ATP. Aerobic (“oxygen-using”) respiration occurs in three stages: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and electron transport. In glycolysis, glucose is split into two molecules of pyruvate. This results in a net gain of two ATP molecules.

The least amount of ATP is produced in the Krebs cycle of cellular respiration. This stage produces only two molecules of ATP.

What are the different stages of cellular respiration?

There are three different stages of cellular respiration are there:

Glycolysis: Breakdown of glucose into pyruvate.The Krebs cycle: Pyruvate gets converted into acetyl-CoA which enters TCA.Electron transport chain: The product of the TCA cycle enters into the electron transport chain.

The process of glycolysis produces 4 ATP and 2 NADH. But 2 ATP is spent which leads to the net production of 2 ATP and 2 NADH. The process of the Krebs cycle involves the breakdown of acetyl-CoA into 2 ATP, 8 NADH, and 2 FADH2. While the process of the electron transport chain produced 34 molecules of ATP with the help of the conversion of all energetic carriers.

Therefore, the least amount of ATP is produced in the Krebs cycle of cellular respiration. This stage produces only two molecules of ATP.

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This tissue’s function is to transport sugars from the leaves to the other areas of the plant.

Answers

I think the answer to this is Phloem 

Answer:

Complete each statement to make it true.

Vascular tissue’s main function is

Vascular tissue runs

Select whether each statement is describing xylem or phloem.

This tissue’s function is to transport sugars from the leaves to the other areas of the plant.    

This tissue’s function is to transport water from the roots to the leaves.

Explanation:

How did early cyanobacteria affect the physical and chemical conditions on earth?

Answers

Early atmosphere of earth had less oxygen (had more carbon dioxide and ammonia) hence was a non-reducing atmosphere. Most bacteria that thrived were anaerobes. However, the emergence of cyanobacteria approximately 3.5 million years ago filled the atmosphere with oxygen. This is because cyanobacteria respire out oxygen. The atmosphere thenceforth became reducing and hence most anaerobes perished while aerobics thrived. This is referred to as the Great Oxidization Event. The formation of ozone layer also enabled thriving of life since the UV light from sunlight was blocked and hecne could not damage organic molecules.


April wants to add _____ to her salad, because the food is a naturally rich source of omega-3 fats.

Answers

The answer is walnuts. Wall nuts are rich in vitamin E, omega – 3 fats and antioxidants; eating or consumption of walnuts everyday may support brain health and increase young adult’s inferential reasoning. It is recommended that an ounce or 28 grams of nuts per day is good, it is as much as the size of a palm of a hand.

The four visual cues are most associated with the part of the brain known as the ____.

Answers

The four visual cues of color, form, depth, and movement are most associated with the part of the brain known as the _____.
visual cortex
Final answer:

The occipital lobe of the brain is associated with the four visual cues which are color, form, movement, and depth. This part helps in interpreting the visual information from the eyes.

Explanation:

The four visual cues are most associated with the part of the brain known as the occipital lobe. This part of the brain is at the back of the head and is primarily involved in vision processing. It interprets visual cues from the eyes, transforming light and color information into images.

The four key visual cues processed by the occipital lobe include color, form, movement, and depth. These cues help us to understand and interact with the world around us in a meaningful way.

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The nurse has provided instructions to a client who will receive alteplase for the treatment of acute myocardial infarction. the nurse determines that teaching was effective if the client states that the main action of alteplase is what?

Answers

Alteplase belongs to the drug class of tissue plasminogen activator. The main action of alteplase is that it activates tissue plasminogen and converts it into plasmin; wherein its action is primarily fibrinolytic. Fibrinolysis refers to the break down of fibrin clots, which is the main component of your thrombus. 

Which theory ties the fields of biology and geology together?

Answers

Paleontology is the scientific field that bridges biology and geology, using geological context to understand biological evolution. It has been greatly influenced by geologists like James Hutton and Charles Lyell through their concepts of geological time and uniformitarianism, which also impacted Charles Darwin's evolutionary theory.

The theory that ties the fields of biology and geology together is called paleontology. Paleontology includes aspects of both biology, such as the study of evolution, the physiology of animals and plants, and ecological relationships, and geology, which provides the timeline through the study of rocks and fossils. This field of science allows us to understand the history of life on Earth by examining the fossil record within the context of Earth's geological history. Notable geologists like James Hutton and Charles Lyell have significantly contributed to evolutionary theory through their concepts of geological time and the principle of uniformitarianism, indicating that the processes we see today have also shaped the Earth in the past. The work of these geologists has been integral to the development of Darwin's theory of evolution and the study of paleoanthropology, which deals with the origins and development of early humans.

Choose the correct anatomical sequence that presents the order in which food passes through the digestive system of a mammal. see concept 41.3 (page 903)

Answers

Food enters through the mouth, where teeth perform the initial breakdown of food into smaller particles and mix it with saliva. The food passes down the pharynx situated behind the mouth and nose, down into the oesophagus, into the, stomach where further breakdown of food occurs, into the small intestine and finally into the large intestine.


List three things that happen to air when it enters the nasal cavity. what are cilia?

Answers

When air enters the nasal cavity, air is filtered,warmed and moistened. Cilia are the air hair like structure found in the certain cells of organisms providing propulsion or movement of substances.

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests which condition?

Answers

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests ulcerative colitis.

Hope this helps!

- Juju
Final answer:

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools typically indicates an infection in the digestive system. This could be caused by various bacteria, leading to intestinal inflammation and associated symptoms. A stool sample would be required to confirm the diagnosis and identify the cause.

Explanation:

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests a condition involving an infection in the digestive system. This could be due to a bacterial infection such as Shigella, Salmonella, C. jejuni, or E. histolytica; or a result of the overgrowth of opportunistic bacteria like Clostridium difficile when the normal intestinal flora is disturbed. These infections generally cause inflammation and damage to the intestinal lining, leading to the presence of pus and mucus in the stools.

They can cause symptoms like diarrhea (which may also contain blood), stomach cramps, and fever. Due to the nature of these conditions, a physician may order a stool sample for testing in order to confirm the diagnosis and determine the causative agent. Treatment will then be prescribed based on the identified cause.

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What can a stem cell do that most body cells cannot do?

Answers

Since they are unspecialized, they can become any specialIzed cell in the body

Distinguish between the structure of pyrimidines and purines. explain why adenine bonds only to thymine.

Answers

Pyrimidines have a single ring structure. Purines have a double ring structure. Adenine and thymine bind together as they’re complementary base pairs to one another, and form 2 hydrogen bonds upon binding

Final answer:

Pyrimidines, such as cytosine and thymine, are single-ringed structures, while purines, like adenine and guanine, are double-ringed. Adenine bonds only to thymine because they can share two hydrogen bonds, maintaining DNA's stable helix structure.

Explanation:

Distinguishing Between Pyrimidines and Purines

The structure of DNA nucleotides includes two distinct types of nitrogenous bases known as pyrimidines and purines. Pyrimidines are single-ringed structures and include cytosine (C) and thymine (T). In contrast, purines are double-ringed structures represented by adenine (A) and guanine (G).

When it comes to the bonding of these bases, adenine forms bonds only with thymine due to the ability of these to share two hydrogen bonds. This selectivity in bonding is also facilitated by the way DNA structures its nucleotide pairings—one purine with one pyrimidine—providing the necessary spacing to maintain the helix's integrity. The double-ring of a purine and the single-ring of a pyrimidine together form a pairing of a consistent shape and size, critical for the DNA structure. For this reason, adenine cannot pair with another purine such as guanine because it would create too much spatial hindrance, nor can it pair with another pyrimidine like cytosine due to excessive spacing.

So, adenine bonds only to thymine due to their matching ability to create two hydrogen bonds and the structural conformity that results when a purine is paired with a pyrimidine, thereby maintaining the optimal width of the DNA helix.

What conclusion would be MOST appropriate about the genetic variation between humans and the three apes as illustrated by the phylogenetic tree? A) Genetic variation between all four organisms is non-existent. B) The genetic variation between all four organisms is about the same. C) The genetic variation between humans and orangutans is the greatest. D) Humans branched off from the other three animals due to great genetic variations.

Answers

Answer:

The genetic variation between humans and orangutans is the greatest.

Explanation:

Humans and orangutans are farthest from each other in the tree, indicating the greatest biomolecular differences or genetic variations. The branches tell us that there are genetic differences; we cannot say from the tree that the amount of differences are equal.

Which one is NOT true of deep ocean trenches? A. They are associated with mid ocean ridges B. They are part of active continental margins c. They are sites where plates plunge back into the mantle d. They are long and narrow depressions at subduction zones

Answers

D. They are long and narrow depressions at subduction zones

Deep ocean trenches are not associated with mid-ocean ridges. The correct option is A.

What is a Deep ocean trench?

Deep ocean trenches are actually associated with subduction zones, which are areas where one tectonic plate is being forced beneath another plate.

They are typically located at the boundaries of tectonic plates where oceanic crust is being subducted beneath either another oceanic plate or a continental plate.

Mid-ocean ridges, on the other hand, are divergent boundaries where tectonic plates are moving away from each other, resulting in the upwelling of molten material from the mantle and the formation of a new oceanic crust.

These ridges are characterized by volcanic activity and the creation of new seafloor.

Therefore, the correct statement should be "A".

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The function of nad+ is to select one:
a. cause the release of energy to adjacent cells when energy is needed in aerobic conditions.
b. hasten the release of energy when the cell has been deprived of oxygen.
c. carry hydrogen atoms and electrons.
d. block the release of energy to adjacent cells.
e. convert the potential energy of the proton gradient into the chemical energy in atp.

Answers

The correct answer is c, NAD+ main purpose is to transport hydrogen atoms and electrons for cellular respiration.

The function of NAD+ is to carry hydrogen atoms and electrons. The correct option is C.

What is NADH?

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) plus hydrogen (H) is referred to as NADH. It occurs naturally in the body and contributes to energy production. The body generates NADH, which is used to produce energy.

This word is used to refer to the same molecule's reduced and oxidized versions. The oxidized form of NAD+ is one in which it has lost an electron. As the molecule's reduced form, NADH receives the electron that was lost by NAD+.

The powerhouses of the cells, the mitochondria, are where ATP, the energy currency, is made. Every cell in your body has mitochondria, which function as little engines or energy makers.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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A tricyclic antidepressant has been prescribed to a 77-year-old client whose current medication regimen includes omeprazole, captopril, calcium carbonate, alendronate, and warfarin. what assessment should the nurse prioritize when monitoring the client for drug-drug interactions?

Answers

Monitor the client closely for bleeding and review coagulation indices when available.

Combining TCAs with warfarin creates a risk for bleeding, which should be addressed in the nursing care plan. There is no known interaction between TCAs and calcium supplements or bisphosphonates that would create a risk for hypocalcemia. TCAs do not heighten the risk of gastroesophageal reflux. TCAs can affect blood pressure, but this is unrelated to any known drug-drug interactions.

According to prep u/ Course point

Answer:

There is a need to monitor closely for bleeding and review coagulation indices when accessible.  

Explanation:

Combining warfarin with TCAs develops a threat for bleeding that should be assessed in the nursing care plan. There is no familiar association between the calcium supplements or bisphosphonates and TCAs, which would develop a threat of hypocalcemia. The TCAs do not elevate the threat of gastroesophageal reflux. The TCAs can influence blood pressure, however, this is not associated with any known drug-drug associations.  

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