Answer:
The correct answers are option A. "Mutating histidine residue 274 of the citrate synthase enzyme to an alanine amino acid would likely eliminate or reduce the enzymatic activity of citrate synthase", B. "The histidine residue would hydrogen bond to acetyl-CoA throughout the reaction mechanism, stabilizing the enolate intermediate", and D. "Oxaloacetate would be repulsed from aspartic acid in the first step of the reaction mechanism".
Explanation:
Citrate cycle is comprised of a series of reactions used in aerobic organisms to release energy from different chemical species. In this cycle, the citrate synthase enzyme catalyzes the first reaction which is the formation of citrate by the condensation of acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate. The enzymatic activity depends on the histidine residue 274, which acts as proton donor to the carbonyl oxygen of acetyl CoA stabilizing the enolate intermediate of citrate. Therefore, a mutating histidine residue 274 of the citrate synthase enzyme to an alanine amino acid would likely eliminate or reduce the enzymatic activity of citrate synthase, also oxaloacetate would be repulsed from aspartic acid in the first step of the reaction mechanism as a result of this modification.
Which is a common clinical manifestation of hypopituitarism that occurs due to deficiency of growth hormone (GH) or a deficiency of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?
Answer & explanation:
Hypopituitarism is a rare disorder in which the pituitary gland of the brain cannot produce one or more hormones in sufficient quantity. When this happens, various body mechanisms may not function properly, especially those related to growth, blood pressure or reproduction.
Depending on the hormone that is affected, symptoms may vary, but usually the doctor may suspect a case of hypopituitarism when a child is not growing at a normal pace or when a woman has fertility problems, for example.
The most common signs of hypopituitarism include: easy tiredness, constant headaches, weight loss for no apparent reason, excessive sensitivity to cold or heat, poor appetite, and difficulty to increase in size for children.
Which of the following terms best characterizes catabolite repression associated with the lactose operon in E.coli?a.negative controlb.constitutivec.repressible systemd.positive controle.inducible system
Answer:
Option C, Positive control
Explanation:
This process (as described in question) is termed as positive control of transcription. This is a positive control as it causes up regulation. Up regulation enhances or increases the rate at which an operon transcripts.
This is also known as glucose effect and was first discovered in E.coli. To understand the glucose effect, a graph was plotted which depicted that bacteria utilizes glucose as an energy source till it get exhausted. After exhaustion of glucose, lactose is used for exponential growth
Hence, option C is correct
Why do people think of pigs as dirty creatures?
Answer:
bc, pigs smell and they love mud and mostly in cartoons they feed them leftovers.
Explanation:
when in reality mud keeps them cool and the stink is just poop and they dont eat leftovers, they eat oats and some weird white powder that makes them fat.
Answer:
because they are in the mud along time but it is to cool down and pigs are one of the cleanest know animals
Mosses and ferns differ in their reproductive strategies from gymnosperms and angiosperms in which of the following ways?
A) Mosses and ferns rely on liquid water for fertilization, whereas angiosperms and gymnosperms do not need liquid water for fertilization.
B) Mosses and ferns have much larger seeds than do angiosperms and gymnosperms.
C) Mosses and ferns use wind pollination, whereas angiosperms and gymnosperms use insects for pollination.
D) Mosses and ferns are primarily diploid in their adult (reproductive) form, whereas gymnosperms and angiosperms are primarily haploid.
E) Mosses and ferns are primarily haploid in their adult form, whereas gymnosperms and angiosperms are primarily diploid.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
The Mosses are the non-vascular plants that were developed from the aquatic plants and the ferns are the vascular plants which developed from the bryophytes.
Their life cycle shows alternation of generation and is largely dependent on the water for reproduction mainly fertilization or fusion of gametes.
The male gametes produced in these plant groups are haploid and are released in water which fuses in water with female gamete which is distinct from the higher plant groups gymnosperms and angiosperms where fertilization is mediated by mostly the wind or insects.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Which of the following offers the best explanation for infantile amnesia? a The accumulation of life experiences disrupts the retrieval of early life events. b The emotional reactivity of infants inhibits the process of encoding. c Iconic memories last for less than a second in infants. d Birth trauma prevents explicit encoding. e The hippocampus is one of the last brain structures to mature.
Answer:
A. the hippocampus is one of the last brain structures to mature
Explanation:
hippocampus is the part of brain which plays an important role in learning an d memory. AS infantile amnesia is the inability of the person to recall the events occurs between 2 to 4 years and also before the age of 10 with passage of time.
the fast birth of cells in the hippocampus during prenantal period and neurogenesis is responsible for having inability of long lasting memories.
Infantile amnesia, or the inability to recall early childhood experiences, is best explained by the fact that the hippocampus, a critical brain structure for memory formation, matures late. Other factors like accumulated experiences or infant emotional reactivity might have some impact, but the brain's biological development offers a broader perspective.
Explanation:The best explanation for infantile amnesia, the inability of adults to remember early childhood experiences, is given by option e. The hippocampus, a central structure for memory formation in the brain, is one of the last brain structures to mature. This delayed maturation can provide a plausible explanation for infantile amnesia, as it suggests that the brain's capacity for creating lasting, retrievable memories isn't fully developed in infancy. While other options like accumulating life experiences or the emotional reactivity of infants might contribute to some degree, the biological development of the hippocampus brings a more comprehensive perspective.
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A terrestrial animal species is discovered with the following larval characteristics: exoskeleton, system of tubes for gas exchange, and modified segmentation. A knowledgeable zoologist should predict that the adults of this species would also feature _____.
Answer:
An open circulatory system.
Explanation:
The kingdom animalia contains different phylum and animals are characterized on the basis of features like skeleton system, cavity and segmentation.
The new species has been noticed by zoologist that contains tube for gas exchange. and modifies segmentation. This means the species might have open circulatory system as the other system of the body is not well developed and the organisms belong to the simple animal phyla with less advanced character.
Thus, the correct answer is an open circulatory system.
Consider the following double-stranded DNA sequence that codes for a short polypeptide. 5'-A-T-G-T-G-G-C-C-A-C-T-A-T-A-A-T-C-A-3' 3'-T-A-C-A-C-C-G-G-T-G-A-T-A-T-T-A-C-T-5' Which strand is the coding strand, and where is the N-terminal end of the resulting peptide located? Consider the following double-stranded DNA sequence that codes for a short polypeptide. 5'-A-T-G-T-G-G-C-C-A-C-T-A-T-A-A-T-C-A-3' 3'-T-A-C-A-C-C-G-G-T-G-A-T-A-T-T-A-C-T-5' Which strand is the coding strand, and where is the N-terminal end of the resulting peptide located? The bottom strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the right. The bottom strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the left. The top strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the left. The top strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the right. Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Answer:
Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Explanation:
The top strand has the inititation codon, ATG, so by logic this should be the coding strang. However, considering that is a complete sequence for a short peptide, it fails to have a termination codon, since in this case the last codon is TCA, which codes for the aminoacid Serine. The termination codons for DNA are TAA Termination (ochre), TAG Termination (amber) or TGA Termination (opal or umber). So, the top strand has the iniciaiton codon, but lacks the termination, so this is incomplete to make the statement of this strand being coding the short peptide.
Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
Which human activity would most likely have a positive impact on the environment? Using pesticides to decrease populations of birds of prey Increasing emissions into the atmosphere to decrease the pH of lakes Using parasites for biological control of pests to increase crop yields Engaging in uncontrolled hunting and trapping to reduce populations of carnivores
Using parasites for biological control of pests to increase crop yields is the human activity that would have the most positive impact on the environment.
Explanation:The human activity that would most likely have a positive impact on the environment is using parasites for biological control of pests to increase crop yields. This method of pest control involves introducing natural enemies, such as predators or parasites, that prey upon and destroy pest species. It is an effective and sustainable alternative to using synthetic chemical pesticides, which can harm non-target species and have negative effects on human health.
If you were to track a single atom of an element as it moves through an ecosystem over a large period of time as it goes from living to nonliving components, you would be studying the ________ cycle of that element.
Answer:
biogeochemical cycle
Explanation:
A biogeochemical cycle is the one in which an element, molecule or compound circulate between living and non living things. It is also known as an inorganic-organic cycle. A chemical, element or molecule changes its form while moving from one biotic or abiotic component to another biotic or abiotic component. These elements in a cycle are usually converted into usable forms and then transferred from one stage to other where they remain in sink for some period of time and lastly released to the environment in their original form.
Some common biogeochemical cycles are – sulfur cycle, phosphorus cycle, nitrogen cycle etc.
During the clinical death phase, the individual's regular heartbeat disintegrates, causing muscle spasms and gasping. resuscitation is no longer possible. the individual passes into permanent death. heartbeat, circulation, breathing, and brain functioning stop.
Answer:
Heartbeat, circulation, breathing, and brain functioning stop.
Explanation:
Clinical death is the medical term used for the cessation of cardiac function (heartbeat and therefore circulation) and breathing. It can be reversible with resuscitation, but it has limits, one of these is relative to the brain, more than 3 minutes of clinical death can damage it irreversibly causing brain death as well.
Considering this information we can conclude that the correct answer is "heartbeat, circulation, breathing, and brain functioning stop"
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
What percentage of extracellular fluid is accounted for by interstitial fluid and plasma? a) 20% b) 40% c) 80% d) 100%.
Answer:
The correct answer is
Explanation:
Extracellular fluids are the fluids that are present outside the cells. The extracellular fluid is composed of plasma and interstitial fluid. Interstitial fluid forms about 80% of extracellular fluid and plasma forms 20% of total extracellular fluids.
Extracellular fluids helps in the transport of nutrient, gases, hormones and other substances to the cells and they also helps in the removal of waste products of cells. Blood plasma contains clotting factors and other proteins that help in blood clotting. Therefore the right answer is d) 100%.
Approximately 80% of the extracellular fluid is accounted for by interstitial fluid and plasma.
Explanation:The percentage of extracellular fluid accounted for by interstitial fluid and plasma is approximately 80%.
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If a cell has 8 duplicated chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase? How many chromosomes will each daughter nucleus have after telophase?
a. 8 and 8
b. 8 and 16
c. 16 and 8
d. 4 and 8
e. 8 and 4
Answer:
e. 8 and 4
Explanation:
Mitosis is a process of cell division through which a mother cell generates two daughter cells of the same ploidia. In order to do this, the cell replicates all its chromosomes before mitosis.
For example, if a diploid cell contains 4 chromosomes, during mitosis this cell will have 8 chromosmes that will be equally distributed at the end of the process -during the telophase- in the two daughter cells: each with 4 chromosomes. Metaphase is a phase within mitosis that precedes telophase, therefore, in the same example, the mother cell that has not yet divided contains still 8 chromosomes.
During anaphase of mitosis, a cell that starts with 8 duplicated chromosomes will have 16 chromosomes after the sister chromatids separate. Following telophase, each daughter nucleus will have 8 chromosomes, as the cell completes division to ensure genetic consistency with the parent cell.
Explanation:The question involves understanding the stages of mitosis, particularly regarding the number of chromosomes present during anaphase and telophase. If a cell has 8 duplicated chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, it will still have 8 chromosomes during anaphase, but these chromosomes will have separated into sister chromatids, essentially doubling the count of chromosomes that are separated to two poles. Therefore, there would be 16 chromosomes during anaphase. But it's important to recognize that these chromosomes are now individual, unduplicated entities.
After telophase and cytokinesis, each daughter nucleus will have 8 chromosomes, which is the same number as the original cell had prior to mitosis. This number ensures that the daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell.
The correct answer is:
c. 16 and 8
According to the passage, the MOST IMPORTANT evidence supporting the opinion that viruses are not alive is that they
A) cause disease.
B) contain DNA or RNA.
C) are much smaller than bacteria.
D) do not have a cellular structure.
Answer:
D) do not have a cellular structure.
Explanation:
Viruses are known to be acellular as they do not have cellular structure. they do not have most of the cellular components i.e they dont have
Plasma membrane
ribosomes
although viruses consist of nucleic acids, proteins,lipids and carbohydrates but they dont have the ability to perform and function and divide unless they enter any other living host cell. viruses uses the machinery of the living host cell and without the cells viruses are unable to divide.
The nurse educates a patient treated for psychosis with perphenazine (Trilafon) regarding the measures to be taken to manage and prevent side effects. The patient makes certain statements to reiterate the teaching. What statement of the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
Answer:
Explanation:
If the patient makes any statement that includes the wrong measures or actions that should be taken to prevent side effects then it is clear that they need further teaching. On the basis of treatment for psychosis with perphenazine then such wrong statement may be something like the following: "If I have a dry mouth then I need to take lozenges or eat hard candy for a period of 2 weeks"
Peyer's patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ________.
A) lymph nodes
B) MALT or mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
C) germinal centers
D) lymphatics
Answer:
B) MALT or mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
Explanation:
Lymphatic nodules are the secondary lymphatic tissues that lack any surrounding capsule and are present like egg-shaped tissue masses. The lymphatic nodules present in the lining of some organ systems such as gastrointestinal tract, urinary system, and the respiratory airways are called mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) as these lymphatic tissues are present in their mucous membranes.
For example, Peyer patches and tonsils. Peyer's patches are the lymphatic nodules present in intestinal wall, and the appendix. Tonsils are the secondary lymphatic tissues present in a ring about pharynx.
Peyer's patches and the tonsils are part of MALT or mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue, which protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection.
Explanation:Peyer's patches and the tonsils are indeed part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that help protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection. This collection of tissues is referred to as B) MALT or mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue. MALT is an essential part of the immune system, as it provides a first line of defense against pathogens that enter the body through the mucosal tissues. While lymph nodes, lymphatics, and germinal centers are also crucial parts of the immune system, they are not the correct answer in this context.
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Calcium is stored in and provides structure to bones, but calcium has other important roles as well. Select the statement below that correctly describes a function of calcium in the body or a condition associated with calcium.a. Calcium is an electrolyte that assists in the transmission of nerve impulses.b. Calcium assists in nerve function by causing nerve cells to contract as calcium enters the cell.c. Calcium helps the body build new muscle cells.d. Calcium found in the blood helps maintain acidbase balance by keeping the blood slightly acidic.
Answer:
a. Calcium is an electrolyte that assists in the transmission of nerve impulses.
Explanation:
In the process of muscle contraction, the action potential (electrical impulse) releases the calcium stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum located in the muscle.
Calcium then flows into the cytoplasm, where the actin and myosin filaments are located, which will interact with each other to promote muscle contraction.
Thus, it can be concluded that calcium does play an important role in nerve impulse transmission.
Given the above statements, it is concluded that the correct alternative is "A" .
As for the other statements: Calcium, as described above, also participates in the process of muscle contraction, however it is the muscle cells that contract, not the nerve cells (Statement B).
In addition, calcium does not participate in the formation of muscle cells (Statement C), nor can it make the blood slightly acidic (Statement D) because it has alkaline (basic) character.
Biotin is the molecule to which is bound in the process of being transferred to . The carboxyl group of biotin forms an amide bond with a specific side chain of . The reaction produces , which then undergoes further reactions in gluconeogenesis.
Answer:
In humans, biotin is involved in important metabolic pathways such as gluconeogenesis, fatty acid synthesis, and amino acid catabolism. Biotin regulates the catabolic enzyme propionyl-CoA carboxylase at the posttranscriptional level whereas the holo-carboxylase synthetase is regulated at the transcriptional level.
Biotin functions as a cofactor that aids in the transfer of CO2 groups to various target macromolecules. Biotin has nine host enzymes with which it is associated. Humans only have four of these enzymes:
Pyruvate carboxylase (formation of oxaloacetate from pyruvate)
beta-Methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase
Propionyl-CoA carboxylase (conversion of propionyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA)
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA)
Biotin's other target enzymes include Steptividin, Avidin, homocitrate synthetase, and isopropylmalate synthase.
In order to provide glucose for vital functions such as the metabolism of RBC's and the CNS during periods of fasting (greater than about 8 hrs after food absorption in humans), the body needs a way to synthesis glucose from precursors such as pyruvate and amino acids. This process is referred to as gluconeogenesis.
1. is the evolutionary history of a species or group of species.2. can produce similarities in body form when similar environments and natural selection have favored similar adaptations.3. Distinguishing between homology, which reflects common ancestry, and , which does not, is critical in determining evolutionary relationships.4. A(n) is a group of species that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendants.5. distinguish clades and thus branch points in the tree of life.6. The use of DNA and other molecules to determine evolutionary relationships is called_________.
Answer:
1. ask seperate questions
2. i look it up to get an answer
3. i dont find it
4. now im here explaining to you that you need to
5. ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS
Explanation:
ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS. thank you.
Mireille began having brief episodes of overwhelming anxiety about a year ago. She doesn't know what causes them, but she has had them in the grocery store, at busy restaurants, and once while driving. Her heart pounds, she has difficulty breathing, and sometimes she feels like her body no longer belongs to her. She is afraid she will go crazy and embarrass herself in front of other people. Based on this information, Mireille may have:
Answer: The answer is A Panic Disorder
Explanation:
Panic disorder is a type of anxiety disorder which usually causes recurring and unexpected panic attacks. The individual feels sudden episodes of intense fear and anxiety and terror when there is no real danger and feels like they are losing control.
It can be caused by severe stress, medical conditions or physical causes.
At Medicago, scientists remove a specific genetic sequence that codes for a hemagglutinin protein from an influenza virus and insert this gene into an Agrobacterium genome. After the hemagglutinin gene is inserted into Agrobacterium, tobacco plants are infected with the Agrobacterium and the hemagglutinin gene is transferred into the tobacco plants. Which of the following allows the tobacco plants to express the hemagglutinin gene and produce the hemagglutinin protein?
Choose one or more:
A. the presence of a complete influenza virus genome in the tobacco plants.
B. a universal genetic code.
C. All living organisms produce at least low levels of the hemagglutinin protein.
D. promoters that allow the tobacco plants' RNA polymerase to recognize the gene.
Answer:
The correct answer will be options-B and D
Explanation:
The studies on the history of origin and evolution of life on Earth shows that all the organisms have evolved from a common descendant. This indicates that they possessed the same chemical-genetic or heredity molecule called Nucleic acid whether DNA or RNA.
DNA acts as the universal genetic material as it is present in all organisms except few. The process related to the DNA molecule is the same in all the organisms.
Since in the given question, the transfer of genes to plants via Agrobacterium and then the expression of the gene in plants shows that the passing of DNA has no barrier as DNA is the genetic material and the enzyme RNA polymerase recognized the gene which could help produce the mRNA from the gene.
Thus, options-B and D is the correct answer.
Tobacco plants can express the hemagglutinin gene and produce the hemagglutinin protein due to a universal genetic code and the action of promoters. The universal genetic code allows the foreign gene to be read and expressed by the plant's cellular machinery. Promoters facilitate the initiation of transcription, allowing the tobacco plant's RNA polymerase to recognize and transcribe the foreign gene.
Explanation:The ability of the tobacco plants to express the inserted hemagglutinin gene and produce the hemagglutinin protein is primarily driven by the presence of a universal genetic code and the action of specific promoters. The genetic code is a set of rules that almost all life on earth follows, it dictates how sequences of nucleotides, specify which amino acid will be added next during protein synthesis. Thus, the inserted gene can be read and expressed by the tobacco plant's cellular machinery in a similar way as its own genes would be.
Moreover, the process of transcription - the first step in gene expression - needs to be initiated. This is where promoters come into play. They are DNA sequences located upstream of a gene that provide a binding site for RNA polymerase and other transcription factors, facilitating the accurate initiation of transcription. Hence, correct promoters are crucial for the tobacco plant's RNA polymerase to recognize and transcribe the foreign hemagglutinin gene into messenger RNA.
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When you go outside, it is common to hear a variety of bird songs. These songs vary among bird species as well as bird flocks. Interestingly, some bird species that are highly unrelated have very similar song qualities. What can you conclude from this phenomenon? The bird songs are homologous traits. The bird songs have achieved speciation after coming from allopatric species. The bird songs are analogous traits. The bird songs have different molecular DNA.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-The bird songs are analogous traits
Explanation:
Analogous traits are the traits which evolved independently in the unrelated organisms but they perform the same functions.
The analogous traits are derived due to the process of convergence that is to perform the same function depending on the habitat thus, development of analogous traits explains the convergent evolution.
The convergence could be observed not only anatomically but in the behavior as well as the physiology. In the given question, since the unrelated species of bird sing songs with similar qualities shows that the singing trait is an analogous trait.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The phenomenon where unrelated bird species have similar song qualities is an example of convergent evolution, indicating the songs are analogous traits, developed independently due to similar environmental pressures.
Explanation:
When we observe that some bird species that are not closely related have very similar song qualities, this is an example of convergent evolution. Here, the bird songs are analogous traits, meaning they perform similar functions but do not share a common evolutionary origin. This is akin to how the wings of bats and insects function similarly but have evolved independently from different ancestral structures. Convergent evolution arises when different species face similar environmental pressures and select for the same adaptations, leading to similar traits.
In which process can glucose transport reach saturation?
Glucose transport reaches saturation through a process called facilitated diffusion. This saturation is reached when the glucose transporter proteins (GLUT) have reached their maximum speed of glucose transport - adding more glucose does not increase the rate of transport.
Explanation:The process in which glucose transport can reach saturation is known as facilitated diffusion. Glucose molecules are transported across the cell membrane using protein channels, specifically glucose transporter proteins, abbreviated as GLUT. When the concentration of glucose is high outside the cell, these GLUT proteins assist the transport of glucose into the cell. However, there is a limit to how fast these GLUT proteins can transport glucose - when this limit (or 'saturation point') is reached, no matter how much more glucose is present, the rate of transport cannot increase further. It's somewhat akin to a highway at rush hour - adding more cars doesn't increase the speed of traffic.
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Glucose transport can reach saturation when there are too many glucose molecules for the carrier proteins in the kidneys to handle, resulting in the excess glucose being excreted in urine.
Explanation:An example of this process occurs in the kidney. Glucose, water, salts, ions, and amino acids needed by the body are filtered in one part of the kidney. This filtrate, which includes glucose, is then reabsorbed in another part of the kidney. Because there are only a finite number of carrier proteins for glucose, if more glucose is present than the proteins can handle, the excess is not transported and it is excreted from the body in the urine. A different group of carrier proteins called glucose transport proteins, or GLUTs, are involved in transporting glucose and other hexose sugars through plasma membranes within the body.
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A promoter and a start codon are similar in that both are sequences of__________ that are required to start important processes, and both determine the sites where the process will begin. The key differences are that the promoter is needed to start_____and the start codon is needed to start________. Also, the promoter is a________ sequence only, and the start codon is a sequence found within a(n)_______.
Answer:
The answers are: NUCLEIC ACID, TRANSCRIPTION, TRANSLATION, DNA, AND MRNA.
Explanation:
A promoter and a start codon are similar in that both are sequences of____NUCLEIC ACID______ that are required to start important processes, and both determine the sites where the process will begin. The key differences are that the promoter is needed to start__TRANSCRIPTION___and the start codon is needed to start____TRANSLATION____. Also, the promoter is a___DNA _____ sequence only, and the start codon is a sequence found within a(n)___MRNA.____.
Which major branch of the left coronary artery curves to the left within the coronary sulcus, giving rise to one or more diagonal branches as it curves toward the posterior surface of the heart?
Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation: the circumflex artery curves to the left around the heart inside the coronary sulcus, there by forming one or more left marginal arteries. the marginal arteries are also called obtuse marinal artery.
Which statement about the brain in adulthood is TRUE? Brain growth stops in young adulthood. The brain continues to grow rapidly in late adulthood. New neurons form and new dendrites grow throughout adulthood. Senescence increases production of neurotransmitters.
Answer:
New neurons form and new dendrites grow throughout adulthood.
Explanation:
Though some bacteria cause disease and illness in humans, the majority are harmless. Some bacteria are used to aid digestion, used in preparation of certain foods, used to battle infections or used by industry. Bacteria have many important roles in nature. All BUT ONE is a role of bacteria out in the world around us.
A) Some bacteria increase the soil fertility.
B) Bacteria carry out 60% of total nitrogen fixation in natural ecosystems.
C) Bacteria are responsible for converting sunlight into usable chemical energy.
D) Bacteria decompose organic matter, by decay and putrefaction, to keep our earth clean.
Answer:
C) Bacteria are responsible for converting sunlight into usable chemical energy.
**This is the role of producers, mostly plants and algae, on Earth. Producers start a food chain; decomposers like bacteria complete it.
Bacteria have many important roles in nature except being responsible for
converting sunlight into usable chemical energy.
Bacteria are organisms and are prokaryotes and have some beneficial
uses e.g in decomposition as well as non-beneficial uses e.g pathogens for
illnesses.
Bacteria however don't convert sunlight into usable chemical energy as this
is done by the primary producers such as plants. This process is regarded as
photosynthesis in which plants convert light energy from the sun to
chemical energy needed by the consumers.
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People with celiac disease should_____.a. take amino acids supplements.b. limit their protein intake to 20g per day.c. avoid foods that contain gluten.d. eliminate protein from plant sources.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. avoid foods with gluten.
Explanation:
Celiac disease is a disease in which people affected with this disease can not eat gluten or gluten rich food as it will damage their small intestine. In the celiac disease the ability of absorbing can be affected as the gluten damage the lining or vili of the small intestine which barred to absorb some macronutrients.
People with celiac disease should avoid foods with gluten as it can cause several symptoms like belching, nausea, fat stool and other symptoms.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. avoid foods with gluten.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Hormones travel via specific pathways to specific cells, while electrical signals travel through the blood to all areas of the body.
b. Effects of hormones last for brief periods of time, while effects of electrical signals last for long periods of time.
c. Hormones have a direct connection with target cells, while electrical signals do not.
d. It takes longer for hormones to be released into the bloodstream and taken to target cells than it does for electrical signals to be transmitted.
Answer: It takes longer for hormones to be released into the bloodstream and taken to target cells than it does for electrical signals to be transmitted.
Explanation:
One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The statement is true; skeletal muscle contraction results in the production of heat as an integral part of maintaining thermal homeostasis within the body, particularly noticeable during exercise and shivering.
Explanation:The statement that one of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is the production of heat is True. Skeletal muscles do more than facilitate locomotion and voluntary movements; they also play a crucial role in thermal homeostasis. When muscles contract, they utilize ATP (adenosine triphosphate) for energy, a process that inevitably leads to the generation of heat as a byproduct. During exercise, for instance, the body's temperature rises, a direct outcome of sustained muscle movement.
In addition to the heat produced during routine movements, skeletal muscles also respond to cold temperatures through shivering, an involuntary process where random muscle contractions produce heat to help raise the body's temperature. Shivering is an effective means of combating the cold and is a survival mechanism to prevent hypothermia. Aside from these functions, even when muscles are not actively creating movement, they exhibit a degree of tension known as muscle tone, which stabilizes joints and assists in maintaining posture.
Which two conditions are required for cloud formation? A) high humidity and warm temperatures. B) high humidity and cool temperatures. C) warm temperatures and the presence of particles. D) cool temperatures and the presence of particles.
The two conditions required for cloud formation are "high humidity and cool temperatures." (Option B)
What happens during cloud formation?When the air contains a high amount of moisture (humidity) and is cooled down, it reaches its dew point, causing water vapor to condense into tiny water droplets or ice crystals around particles in the atmosphere.
These particles can be dust, smoke, or other substances, providing surfaces for the water molecules to cling to. This process of condensation leads to the formation of clouds, which can range from thin, wispy cirrus clouds to thick, cumulonimbus clouds associated with storms.
Thus option B is the right answer.
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B) Clouds form when there is high humidity and cool temperatures.
The high humidity provides ample water vapor, while the cool temperatures cause the air to reach its saturation point.
Once the air is saturated, the water vapor condenses around cloud condensation nuclei, which are small particles in the atmosphere, allowing for the formation of clouds.
This process can occur due to several mechanisms, such as air rising and cooling adiabatically, or air being lifted over higher ground, resulting in a drop in temperature and leading to condensation.