Answer:
It extends the spectrum of antibacterial activity of the penicillin.
Explanation:
The spectrum of the antibiotics may be defined the ability to kill the different range of the organism. Two main spectra of the antibiotics are narrow spectrum antibiotics and wide spectrum antibiotics.
Beta lactamse is the enzyme that help in the providing resistivity to the beta lactam antibiotics. The combination of the beta lactamse inhibitor with the penicillin helps in increasing and widening the spectrum of the penicillin. The penicillin can kill the large number of bacteria after its combination with beta lactamse inhibitor.
Jackson agreed to Stanley's suggestion that they shoplift some video games. Later in the week, Jackson agreed to go along with Stanley's suggestion to steal a neighbor's expensive racing bike. Reflecting on what he had done, Jackson was surprised by his willingness to comply with Stanley's request. Jackson's experience illustrates____________.
Answer:
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
Explanation:
It is a strategy in psychology and it is used in order to make someone do something we ask from them. The one who persuades another, picks a simple thing at first and that way, makes sure that they will do the same when a bigger thing comes along. Why is it important, because if we asked from them a '' bigger favor '' at first, they would not agree. An example: Sarah asked Tina to steal a candy. She said yes. A few days later, Sarah said she would like Tina to steal an expensive dress for her, and Tina said yes.
Which of the following statements regarding tobacco use and cardiovascular disease is FALSE?
A. Smoking alters the blood-clotting process.
B. The risk of heart attack or stroke is related to the number of cigarettes smoked and the duration of use.
C. Smoking effects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped.
D. Environmental (secondhand) tobacco smoke increases risk for cardiovascular disease.
Answer: the correct answer is option C
C. Smoking effects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped.
Explanation:
2–5 years later after quitting smoking, the risk of stroke drops.
After 5–15 years: The risk of mouth, throat, esophagus, and bladder cancer drops by half.
After 10 years: The risk of lung cancer and bladder cancer drops by half.
Answer:
C. Smoking effects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped
Explanation:
The benefits of quitting smoking are almost instantaneous and can be seen on the same day the individual quits smoking and not 10 years after stopping smoking.
When tobacco is abandoned after 20 minutes, blood pressure and pulse rate are back to normal. After 8 hours, your blood carbon monoxide levels are likely to decrease, and after 24 hours your lungs will function much better.
After 48 hours, nicotine is virtually extinguished from the body, improving some senses such as taste and smell. In the third month, lung function improves, decreasing cough and breathing problems. With a year without a cigarette, the risk of cardiovascular disease is halved, and in 10 years the risk of death from cancer decreases significantly.
During inhalation, During inhalation, oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. the diaphragm relaxes. the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. air moves up the trachea. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
Answer:
Explanation:
During the process of inhalation, the diaphragm is pulled down and the lungs expand. High-pressure air from the environment is inhaled. The air passes the trachea and enters the lungs. It starts n the bronchi, enters the bronchioles and finally the alveoli. Bronchi are the main passageway into the lungs. There are two bronchi, right and left - leading into each lung.
Inhaled air passes through the mouth and nose, trachea, right and left mainstem bronchi, secondary and tertiary bronchi and reaches the alveoli- gas exchange region.
The rea gas exchange is carried out in the respiratory bronchioles, the alveolar ducts and alveoli. The gas exchanging surface is 70m². Alveoli posses a rich capillary network for gas exchange.
After passing through the nose and the mouth, the inhaled oxygen enters the larynx. The larynx is a passageway that air passes through before it gets to the trachea. It stops food and other things from making its way to the lower respiratory system. The larynx is also known as the voice box, this is where vocal sounds are produced.
After the oxygen is used up and turned into carbon dioxide we exhale. We exhale the exact amount of carbon dioxide as we inhaled oxygen. When this happens the carbon dioxide follows the same path out that the oxygen did in, just in the opposite order.
PaCO₂ is the partial pressure exerted by dissolved CO₂ in arterial blood (35-45 mmHg).
PaO₂ is the partial pressure exerted by dissolved O₂ in arterial blood (80-100 mmHg).
O₂ crosses the alveolar-capillary membrane, then dissolve in plasma. Thus, it binds to haemoglobin (98%), while 2% remains dissolved in plasma. O₂ bound to haemoglobin then comes off haemoglobin, dissolves in plasma and diffuses to the tissues.
Pulse oximetry (SpO₂) is the measurement of O₂ bound to haemoglobin.
At the tissue level, CO2 is a by-product of cellular metabolism. It diffuses from the tissue to the blood.
Shavonda fell and fractured her hip, and has since been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Shavonda s doctor will probably recommend __________." removing vitamin D from the diet endurance training weight-bearing exercise a vitamin C enriched diet
Answer: Weight Bearing exercises
Explanation:
Weight bearing exercise are required in order to improve the weight bearing ability of the bones. Osteoporosis makes the bones weak. Bone becomes weak and fragile which looses its ability to withstand the normal weights of the body and causes pain in joints.
A person who is suffering from osteoporosis must be trained for bearing exercise. Shavonda fell and fractured her hip because the bones were weak.
Such person must be trained with weight training.
, Virginia exhibits a variety of schizophrenic symptoms including delusions, auditory hallucinations, and formal thought disorder. She has been symptomatic for a little more than a month. Virginia qualifies for a diagnosis of ________ paranoid schizophrenia. schizoaffective disorder, manic type. undifferentiated schizophrenia. provisional schizophreniform disorder.
Answer:
schizoaffective disorder,
Explanation:
An older adult client has been receiving care in a two-bedroom that he has shared with another older, male client for the past several days. Two days ago, the client's roommate developed diarrhea that was characteristic of Clostridium difficile. This morning, the client himself was awakened early by similar diarrhea. The client may have developed which type of infection?
Answer:
Exogenous healthcare-associated
Explanation:
Exo in this case means outside and genous means born, then we have that it is an infection that was born outside the body of the patient and got into it.
The word outside in this case implies that the patient is surrounded by a contaminated atmosphere, in this case in his hospital bedroom, due to this situation he was affected with the same condition that his partner was affected with.
A husband and wife are insured under group health insurance plans at their places of employment. Because their employers pay for their plans, each is covered as a dependent under their spouse's coverage. If the husband is hospitalized, how are the medical expenses likely to be paid?
A) The husband will have to select a plan from which he wants to collect benefits
B) The benefits will be coordinated
C) Neither plan would pay
D) The husband can collect from each plan
Answer:
B)
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that If the husband is hospitalized, then the benefits will be coordinated. Meaning they will most likely be paid to the beneficiary/dependent of the husbands policy because that person would be the one taking care of all the medical expenses that arise as the husband will most likely not be able to. Which in this case is the wife.
Severe whiplash, or acceleration flexion-extension neck injury, may cause numbness, tingling, or weakness in an accident victim's arms. Most injuries happen in the C5 and C6 region. Which nerve plexus would this injury most likely involve?
a. lumbar
b. brachial
c. sacral
d. cervical
Answer:cervical
Explanation:
Whiplash is a fracture to the 2 cervical vertebrae making the cervical nerve to compress
The brachial plexus is the nerve plexus most likely involved in an injury to the C5 and C6 region, causing symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or weakness in the arms. Hence the correct answer is B.
The injury described, which is an acceleration flexion-extension neck injury occurring in the C5 and C6 region, would most likely involve the brachial plexus. This nerve plexus is associated with the lower cervical spinal nerves and the first thoracic spinal nerve, extending from C4 through T1. Since C5 and C6 are part of this range, the symptoms of numbness, tingling, or weakness in the arms due to a severe whiplash would be related to the brachial plexus. This plexus is responsible for the nerve supply to the arms and is where the radial, ulnar, and median nerves, amongst others, emerge.
The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend that older adults: a) avoid resistance exercise to reduce fracture risk. b) perform at least 200 minutes of high-intensity exercise weekly. c) include a wide variety and multiple intensity levels of exercise in their exercise plans. d) incorporate balance exercises if they are at risk of falling.
Answer: d) incorporate balance exercises if they are at risk of falling.
Explanation:
According to the physical activity guidelines of Americans in 2008 for older adults:
1. Older adults must perform the exercise that either maintain or improve their balance if they are at high risk of falling.
2. Older adults must understand how their chronic conditions affecting their ability to perform regular exercises.
3. Older adults should determine the level of effort they can put for the physical exercises and to achieve fitness.
4. Older adults must be physically active based on their ability and conditions allow.
You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect?
Answer:
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The child is in emergency condition. Swollen tongue, wheezing and hives with respiratory distress are symptoms of the anaphylaxis (an allergic reaction). Most possibly the boy is stung by an insect or it can be from pollen in the park.
A client has begun to suffer from rheumatoid arthritis. She is also being assessed for disorders of the immune system. She works as an aide at a facility that cares for children infected with AIDS. Which of the following is the most important factor related to the patient's assessment?
a) Her age
b) Her home environment
c) Her diet
d) Her use of other drugs
Explanation:
The nurse needs to focus more on patient's drug history.This data will allow the nurse to evaluate the patient's vulnerability to disease because certain past illnesses and medications such as corticosteroids decrease the inflammatory and immune responses.The patient's age, home environment and diet don't have any serious consequences during her assessment because they don't indicate her vulnerability to illness.
A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?
A.Dyspnea
B.Mild allergy
C.Shock
D.Anaphylaxis
A person's blood pressure has fallen below normal as the person has quickly jumped out of his or her chair where he or she had been relaxing. All of the following reflect events in restoring the blood pressure to normal EXCEPT which one?
Answer:
The heart rate will decrease.
Explanation:
When a person's blood pressure goes below the normal rate, heart rate increases in order to get the blood pressure back to normal.
A client with ovarian cancer is ordered hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with:a. the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA molecules (cell cycle-nonspecific).b. normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Anti-metabolites are the chemical drugs which interfere with the chemical enzymes used during the DNA synthesis.
The drugs act during the DNA replication process which takes place in S or synthesis phase of the cell cycle which prevents the DNA replication. They affect the DNA synthesis by acting as a substitute for the metabolite utilized during the DNA synthesis metabolism. They are used in cancer treatment chemotherapy.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
Is diagnosed with a personality disorder. We can expect that he __________.tends to comply with societal expectations will reject societal expectations is unable to function adequately in society has a strong sense of self
Answer:
From a person diagnosed with a personality disorder, we can expect that he is unable to function adequately in society.
Explanation:
Personality disorders often caused difficulties for the people that suffered them, to relate to others, some times it affects works performance, it affects life in general. The personality is fundamental to live in society, that is why is this problems can affect different dimensions of someone's life. It is hard for a person with this disorder to adapt to his environment. It affects them at a level that without help, is hard for a person to function well at work, at relationships, and so forth.
The condition of the body that enables an individuals to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience
Answer:Physical fitness.
Explanation:
Physical fitness is the condition of the body that enables an individuals to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience.
Physical fitness ensures Genuine health or wellness. Genuine health or wellness is not just the absence of disease or infirmity, it is a state of positive well-being. It includes the physical, mental, spiritual, and scio-emotional dimensions of life.
Answer:
the push up test assesses C.) muscular endurance
Explanation:
What is the purpose of block and parish nursing?1 To provide services to older clients.2 To promote health throughout a school curriculum.3 To provide nursing services with a focus on health promotion and education.4 To provide primary care to a client population living in a community.
Answer:
1.
Explanation:
Block and parish nursing is focused on the clients of certain age or simply people that are unavailable to take care of themselves and leave their homes. Those nurses live in or near the neighborhoods where clients live as well so it makes it more efficient and faster to be at their disposal. Medical care is very expensive, so this is a great way to help those in need without taking away their little fortunes.
Block and parish nursing provide accessible and personalized community healthcare, focusing on health promotion and education for all age groups. It involves home visits, health education in the community, conducting health assessments, and collaborating with schools.
Explanation:The purpose of block and parish nursing is to provide accessible and personalized healthcare services within a community. This part of the healthcare system is primarily focused on health promotion and education, especially for those who may have limited access to healthcare. It is not only directed towards older clients but also arrays across age groups including children, adults, and the elderly. For instance, nurses may visit patients in their homes, provide healthcare education within the community, and conduct health assessments. They may also work with schools to promote health education, thus contributing not only to immediate healthcare but also to the broader goal of health promotion and prevention.
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The registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about providing care to an older adult with dementia. Which statement made by the nursing student indicates a need for further education?1 "I should serve food that is easy to eat."2 "I should assist the client with eating."3 "I should monitor weight and food intake once in a month."4 "I should offer food supplements that are tasty and easy to swallow."
Answer: 3."I should monitor weight and food intake once in a month."
Explanation:
Dementia is a disease that affects the mental health of a patient. The symptoms are associated with the negative effect on the memory, social abilities, and thinking skills of a person. The memory of a patient is lost. The patient finds it difficult to communicate with others due to a problem in finding the words. Other issues are difficulty in reasoning, problem-solving skills, control and coordination of the patient is severely affected and the patient will remain confused and disoriented.
3. option emphasis that patient needs to learn more about dementia. As the disease does not affect the weight of the patient and food intake directly. The patient can take appropriate diet which may not cause any drastic fluctuation in weight or food intake.
Final answer:
The nursing student needs further education on the importance of frequently monitoring weight and food intake for older adults with dementia, as monthly checks are insufficient.
Explanation:
The statement by the nursing student that indicates a need for further education is "I should monitor weight and food intake once in a month." This indicates a lack of understanding regarding the frequent monitoring required for older adults with dementia, especially those who may experience nutritional issues like dysphagia or the anorexia of aging. Nursing interventions for this population must include careful and regular monitoring of weight and food intake to promptly address any nutritional deficits or changes in eating habits.
Assistance with eating, such as serving easy-to-eat food and offering tasty, easy-to-swallow supplements, are important but must be accompanied by vigilant nutritional tracking. Furthermore, emotional support and education for families are essential to help them understand the challenges associated with feeding and nutrition in patients with dementia.
The male client is diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) and is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching?
1. "I should keep the tablets in the dark-colored bottle they came in."
2. "If the tablets do not burn under my tongue, they are not effective."
3. "I should keep the bottle with me in my pocket at all times."
4. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER."
Answer:
4. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER."
Explanation:
People with coronary artery disease, which is characterized by sudden attacks of angina, are usually placed on sublingual nitroglycerin medications. Sublingual nitroglycerin is a small pill that is placed under the tongue, just as the name “sublingual” suggests. When placed under the tongue, it dissolves and is absorbed quickly into the body. The drug usually becomes active within 2 to 5 minutes and lasts between 15 to 30 minutes.
In cases where the patient suffers from frequent chest pain, it is recommended that the patient repeats the dose for a total of 2 to 3 doses 5 minutes apart, and the chest pain doesn’t subside, the patient can immediately call 911 or ED.
The patient in the question above demonstrates a good level of knowledge of the right use of the medication prescribed, except in the 4th Statement. The patient needs to be educated more about the use of the sublingual nitroglycerin. He needs to do a repeated dosage of one tablet every 5 minutes, if he still feels pain after the third tablet, he can then go to the ER or 911.
Radiation from the skin surface and evaporation of sweat are two ways in which the skin gets rid of
Answer:
Heath
Explanation:
In humans, thermoregulation is the mechanism used to maintain the balance of the core internal temperature range (37-37.8°C) by an organism, all these mechanisms' goal is to return the body to homeostasis.
Some mechanism to release heath from the body are:
Sweating: the liquid that the body releases cools down the skin as it evaporatesVasodilatation: blood vessels under the skin widen increasing the blood flow to the skin, closer to the cooler exterior, this allows the body to release heat via radiationI hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Radiation and evaporation are two mechanisms through which the skin gets rid of heat. Radiation transfers heat via infrared waves, while evaporation cools the body as sweat evaporates from the skin, taking away energy.
Explanation:Radiation from the skin surface and evaporation of sweat are two ways in which the skin can get rid of heat. Radiation refers to the transfer of heat via infrared waves, which occurs between any two objects when their temperatures differ. About 60 percent of the heat lost by the body is lost through radiation, warming the environment like the sun warms the skin.
Evaporation is the transfer of heat by the evaporation of water. Because it takes a lot of energy for a water molecule to change from a liquid to a gas, evaporating water (in the form of sweat) takes with it a great deal of energy from the skin, thus cooling the body. However, the rate at which evaporation occurs depends on relative humidity. Sweating is the primary means of cooling the body during exercise where more sweat evaporates in lower humidity environments
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Because infants and small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, respiratory distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults?
A) Bulging of the intercostal spaces
B) Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck
C) Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort
D) None of the above
Answer: The answer is C- Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort.
Explanation:
Adults require the coordinated use of the diaphragm, the intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles for breathing.
However babies and young children make use of the abdominal muscles to pull the diaphragm down for breathing. Their intercostal muscles are not yet fully developed at birth. It is therefore easy to observe respiratory distress by observing the movement of the abdominal muscles.
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. the way in which traumatic injuries occur. C. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
Answer: C. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
Explanation:
The suspicion may be defined as the act or instance of suspecting something wrong without any kind of proof or with the help of very few evidence. The suspicion is a state of uncertainty.
An index of suspicion can be defined as the suspicion that leads to the awareness or concern about a potentially serious unseen injury or illness. A high index of suspicion suggests the strong possibility of illness or internal injury.
The index of suspicion is most accurately defined as your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. It's the degree of suspicion one has about potential serious conditions in a patient, based on symptoms, medical history, or other factors. It's crucial in emergency scenarios for quick, potentially life-saving diagnoses.
Explanation:The index of suspicion in health science is most accurately defined as D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. This term typically refers to the level of suspicion a healthcare professional has about potential serious conditions in a patient, based on symptoms, medical history, or other factors.
It's especially relevant in emergency scenarios where a preliminary diagnosis could potentially be life-saving. An example of this could be a patient coming in with minor bruises but their medical history reveals they take blood thinners. A high index of suspicion would raise concerns over potential internal bleeding, even though the exterior injuries look minor.
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__________ reactions are used to detect antibodies for relatively large pathogens, such as bacteria. For these tests, the antigen is mixed with the test sample at various dilutions. Reaction mixes are then monitored for the formation of visible aggregates.
Answer:
Agglutination reactions are used to detect antibodies for relatively large pathogens, such as bacteria. For these tests, the antigen is mixed with the test sample at various dilutions. Reaction mixes are then monitored for the formation of visible aggregates.
Explanation:
Agglutination is the process that forms clumps of particles or cells. Agglutination reactions are used to detect antibodies or bacterias by mixing in a sample an antibody with antigens. The antibody binds the antigens creating an aggregate of bacterias.
Which steps should be used when attempting to help someone who is severely bleeding?
Select all that apply.
1) remove debris from the wound
2) elevate the wounded leg or arm above the heart
3) apply pressure with clean bandages
4) clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide
When providing first aid for severe bleeding, apply direct pressure to the wound, elevate the wounded area, avoid removing embedded debris, and do not clean with hydrogen peroxide.
When attempting to help someone who is severely bleeding, several steps should be followed to control the bleeding:
Apply direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth or bandage.
If possible, elevate the wounded area above the level of the heart.
Avoid removing large or deeply embedded debris from the wound, as this could cause more bleeding.
Do not clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide as it can damage the tissues and slow healing. Plain water or saline is preferable for a gentle rinse if necessary.
If the bleeding is from an artery, you'll see blood spurting in time with the heartbeat. In this case, it is crucial to bandage the limb on the side nearest to the heart to help reduce blood flow. If the blood is flowing steadily and not spurting, it suggests a vein is injured, and a bandage should be placed on the side farthest from the heart. While awaiting medical assistance, if you know how to, you can make a tourniquet using a bandage and applying pressure to the artery above the wound.
To help someone with severe bleeding, first identify if it's arterial or venous, then apply direct pressure with clean bandages and elevate the limb above the heart. Avoid using hydrogen peroxide directly in the wound and monitor for signs of infection.
When attempting to help someone who is severely bleeding, the first course of action is to determine whether an artery or a vein is injured. This can be discerned by observing if the blood spurts in jets, indicating an arterial bleed, or flows steadily, indicating a venous bleed. Elevating the affected limb above the heart level and applying pressure with clean bandages are critical steps. If an artery is injured, you should apply pressure on the side of the wound closest to the heart, whereas for a vein injury, apply pressure on the side farthest from the heart.
Before applying a bandage, use sterile gauze or cloth to apply direct pressure to the wound. Avoid trying to clean the wound with solutions like hydrogen peroxide, as they can damage tissue and impede healing—gentle cleaning around the wound with alcohol is an initial step, before medical professionals arrive to thoroughly clean the wound. It's also essential to monitor for signs of infection such as increased redness, swelling, and pain after the wound has been bandaged.
The nurse has completed a preoperative teaching session with a client who will receive morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump after surgery. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Answer: "I will remind my family member to push the PCA pump button for me if I doze off during the day."
Explanation:
The PCA pump or a patient-controlled analgesia pump is a computerized pump which exhibits a syringe of medication as prescribed by a physician or doctor. The pump mechanism is connected with the patient's inter-venous system. It is set to deliver a small amount of medication as directed by the handheld button.
The patient can receive the morphine by himself or herself by pushing a handheld button for availing the drug to the body and no need to remind the family.
Your team attends an emergency cesarean delivery of a term baby because of chorioamnionitis, meconium stained amniotic fluid, and fetal heart rate decelerations. At delivery, the newborn is term as expected, with very poor tone and he is not breathing (apneic). You quickly perform the initial steps, but the baby is still not breathing. What is the most appropriate next step of resuscitation?
a.Intubate and administer 0.05 mg/kg of endotracheal epinephrine
b.Start positive pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after 15 seconds
c.Start cardiac compressions coordinated 3:1 with the ventilations, and prepared insert an umbilical venous catheter
d.Immediately intubate and suction the trachea
Answer:
B. Start possitve-pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after fifteen seconds
Explanation:
The most important when having to deal with this kind of procedure is planning and preparation, since it is necessary to count on the ideal professional staff and available equipment. Besides it should exist an accurate level of communication between the obstretic and neonatal resuscitation team and one more thing that should be taken into account is the maternal-fetal risk factors in case there are some.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Start positive-pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after 15 seconds,
Explanation:
When indicated, PPV should begin within 1 minute after delivery.
How do you prepare to start positive pressure ventilation? 1. Eliminate airway secretions. If it is no longer done, suck the mouth and nose to make sure the secretions do not obstruct the PPV.
2. Position yourself next to the baby's head. The person responsible for placing the airways in position and holding the mask on the baby's face is placed on the baby's head.
3. Place the baby's head and neck in the correct position.
The baby's head and neck should be in a neutral position or slightly extended in the sniffing position so that the baby's chin and nose are facing up. The airways will be clogged if the neck is excessively flexed or extended.
How do you evaluate the baby's response to positive pressure ventilation? The most important indicator of a successful PPV is the increase in heart rate. An assistant will monitor the baby's heart rate response with a stethoscope, a pulse oximeter or an electronic heart monitor. Perform 2 assessments of the baby's heart rate response to PPV separately.
Check chest movements with assisted breaths. The heart rate is not increasing; The chest is moving. Announce "The chest IS moving." Continue the PPV that moves to the chest. Perform your second evaluation of the baby's heart rate after 15 more seconds from the PPV that moves the chest. The heart rate is not increasing; the chest is NOT moving. Announce "The chest is NOT moving." The vents are not insufflating the lungs. Perform corrective ventilation steps
Diane is concerned about things at work when she is at home, and worried about her home life when she is at work. This free-floating anxiety leaves her tense and irritable, impairs her concentration, and results in many sleepless nights. Diane suffers from?
Answer:
generalized anxiety disorder.
Explanation:
Anxiety is a part of everyday's life as life is complex and full of obligations. This type of anxiety is developed by both adults and children. The symptom an individual shows when suffering from this type of condition are similar to OCD, panic disorder and other kinds of anxiety. It improves in time if a person seeks a professional help and take some medicaments. Symptoms: overthinking, worrying too much, over-reacting, not being able to keep calm and at peace, etc.
Seamus is obsessive about details when drawing pictures. He keeps his bedroom spotless and meticulously organized. he tends to shy away from other children and is awkward when trying to relate to others. which of the following diagnoses would best fit Seamus's behavior?
A. compulsive disorder
B. asperger syndrome
C. dyslexia
D. autism
All plants, except for bryophytes, are sporophyte dominant. How does a dominant sporophyte generation lead to increased evolutionary fitness?
Answer:
Explained
Explanation:
Sporophyte is is the dyploid multicellular in life cycle of plant or alga. It is developed when a hyploid egg is fertilized hyploid sperm so each sporophyte cell has a double set of chromosomes that is one set from each parent.
Now coming to the question dominant sporophyte generation lead to increased evolutionary fitness because dyploid tissues contain a backup if one allele is damaged.
Maintaining at least a 1-second space margin from the vehicle in front of you not only provides you with visibility, time, and space to help avoid rear-end crashes, but also allows you to steer or brake out of danger at moderate speeds.A. True.B. False
Answer:
This statement is false.
Explanation:
A 1 second space between the person and the vehicle which is in front of a person is the the time in which there will be no reaction to the movements of vehicle could further cause crashing. There should be a 3 second space between a rider as well as vehicle depends on the condition of road as well as weather so that there will be enough time for reaction and safely maneuvering of the car can be done. So that further crashing of the road is to be avoided.