X-Tel budgets sales of $60,000 for April, $100,000 for May, and $80,000 for June. In addition, sales are 40% cash and 60% on credit. All credit sales are collected in the month following the sale. The April 1 balance in accounts receivable is $15,000. Prepare a schedule of budgeted cash receipts for April, May, and June.

Answer:

(B) The preferred stock of a given firm is generally less risky to investors than the same firm's common stock

Explanation:

(A) preferred shareholders have the rights to company assets first FALSE

(B) the preferred shareholders receive dividends before the common stock, and their dividend can be cumulative over time. So their risk is lower than common stock. TRUE

(C) corporation can purchase the preferred stock of other corporation FALSE

(D) the preferred dividends can be cumulative FALSE

Final answer:

Preferred stockholders have priority over bondholders in bankruptcy. Preferred stock is less risky than common stock.

Explanation:

Preferred stockholders have priority over bondholders in the event of bankruptcy to the income, but not to the proceeds in a liquidation. Preferred stock is generally less risky to investors than common stock, as it pays fixed dividends and enjoys a favored position in case of liquidation.

Answer:

D.cahs $18,000

Explanation:

cash $18,000

$2,000, account(s) and amount(s) would we credit when we record the journal entry for the September 5 transaction. So, the journal entry is Cash $2,000…dr.

Treasury Stock $2,000…. Cr.

In this instance, we sold 100 shares of treasury stock at a price of $12 each, resulting in total profits of $1,200 ($12 x 100 shares). The initial cost of the repurchased treasury stock was $10 per share, making the whole price $2,000 ($10 x 200 shares).

We would credit the cash account with the $2,000 received in order to record the sale. The treasury stock account is likewise credited, but only for $2,000 because that is how much the stock originally cost.

When selling treasury stock, the difference between the cash received and the stock's cost will be recorded as a gain or loss.

Journal entry is:

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Answer:

$64,000 COST OF GOODS SOLD

Explanation:

Beginning Inventory + Purchase =  Ending Iventory + Cost of Goods Sold

The first two represent the available goods for sale

(what we had plus we we bring during the period)

The second part is what happened:

How much we sold and how much we keep to next cycle.

Posting in the formula the know values:

67,000 + 19,000 = 22,000 + COGS

67,000+19,000 - 22,000 = COGS

Solving for the unknow values

64,000 = cogs

Answer:

Explanation:

The process would be to use formulas of the variable costing method to solve for each term:

We are going to use the operating income formula

contribution margin - fixed cost = operating income

Replace with the know values:

contribution margin - 160,000 =  164,000

now solve for the unknow value

contribution = 164,000 + 160,000 = 324,000

Next step we use the contribution margin ratio formula to get the sales:

contribution margin/sales = contribution ratio

Replace with the know values:

324,000/sales = 0.25

now solve for the unknow value:

sales = 324,000/0.25 = 1,296,000

Lastly we use the contribution margin formula to solve for variable cost:

sales - variable cost = contribution margin

Replace with the know values:

1,296,000 - variable cost = 324,000

now solve for the unknow value:

variable cost= 1,296,000 - 324,000 = 972,000

Total dollar sales is calculated to be $1,296,000 and total variable costs is calculated to be $972,000.

The first part of the question asks for the total dollar sales. To find this, we use the formula for contribution margin: Contribution Margin Ratio = (Sales - Variable Costs) / Sales. Rearranging this formula, you get Sales = (Fixed Costs + Pretax income) / Contribution Margin Ratio. Plugging the provided values into the formula, we get Sales = ($160,000 + $164,000) / 0.25 = $1,296,000.

The second part asks for the total variable costs. Recall that the Contribution Margin Ratio is also equal to 1 - (Variable Costs / Sales). Rearrange this to get Variable Costs = Sales - (Sales × Contribution Ratio), and substituting the given values, it gives us Variable Costs = $1,296,000 - ($1,296,000 × 0.25) = $972,000.

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Answer:

Adjusted opening balance of retained earnings in its statement of retained earnings at December 31, 2019 = $232,500

Explanation:

Provided inventory of $50,000 not included in stock of the year 2018, which means closing inventory is understated with the same amount for the year 2018, which concludes profit of the year 2018 are understated with the same amount.

Now if that amount is added to closing inventory then profits for the year 2018 will increase net profit will increase by $50,000 - Taxes @35%

Net profit understated = $50,000 - ($50,000 X 35%) = $32,500

Balance of retained earnings at year end will be $200,000 + $32,500 = $232,500

Thus adjusted opening balance of retained earnings in its statement of retained earnings at December 31, 2019 = $232,500

To calculate the adjusted beginning retained earnings, subtract tax expense from net income by adjusting for the merchandise cost.

The amount that Jethroe Co. should report as adjusted beginning retained earnings in its statement of retained earnings at December 31, 2019 can be calculated by subtracting the tax expense from the net income.

For example, if the net income after adjusting for the merchandise cost is $250,000, then the tax expense would be $87,500 (35% of $250,000). Therefore, the adjusted beginning retained earnings would be $162,500 ($250,000 - $87,500).

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Answer:

In most cases, your blood will not mix with your babies until delivery.  

It takes a while to make antibodies that can affect the baby, so during the first pregnancy the baby should not be affected.  If you are Rh-negative and are not sensitized.  Your doctor may have the blood test repeated between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.  If the test still shows that you still have not been sensitized, you probably will not need another antibody test until delivery.  

Explanation:

The nursing action that needs to be taken once it is decided that the client has not been formerly sensitized through red blood cells that are Rh-positive would be:

- Administering Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours.

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Answer:

The depreciation expense for the year 2019 is $6250

Explanation:

Firstly the straight line depreciation method is one of the most commonly used depreciation method by the companies where the depreciation expenses for a full accounting period is calculated by subtracting the total cost of the asset by the salvage value of the asset over its useful estimated life.

FORMULA FOR STRAIGHT LINE DEPRECIATION METHOD =

\frac{COST OF THE ASSET - SALVAGE VALUE}{USEFUL LIFE YEAR}

In this question the first step to do is to calculate the depreciation expenses for the asset from year 2015 to 2018, where cost of asset = $90,000

                                                                          salvage value = $5,000

                                                                          useful life year = 10

Calculating the depreciation expense for 1 year =

\frac{\$90,000 - \$5,000}{10} = \$8500

But we have to calculate the value for 4 years between 2015 - 2018

so, $8500 x 4 = $34,000

Now in 2019 the salvage value is revised and it is equal to $6,000, and useful life is 8 years.

So here we will subtract the $34,000 from total cost of the asset $90,000, and take out depreciation expenses for the year 2019 as,

Firstly the cost of the asset for the year 2019 would be $90,000 - $34,000,

which is equal to $56,000 and now putting this value in the formula,

\frac{\$56,000 - \$6,000}{8} = \$6250

Therefore the depreciation expense for the year 2019 is $6250

Answer:

Total Green's Investment 329,607.8

Explanation:

Book Value 275,200

Goodwill 25,650

First we calculate the goodwill, which will be amortize over 5 years

[tex]\frac{goodwill}{useful \: life}  = amortization \: per \: year[/tex]

Amortization of Goodwill 25,650/5 = 5,130

Goodwill at December 31th 20,520

Next we use proportional equity to adjust the Green's book value Our proportion is 34%

Book Value 275,200

+ 34% of net income 125,120 = 42,540.8

-34% of cash dividends 25,450 = (8,653)

Book Value at December 31th 309,087.8

Book Value at December 31th 309,087.8

Goodwill at December 31th 20,520

Total Green's Investment 329,607.8

Answer: the one that is false is A. Emergency plans ensure that all resources can be obtained through internal sources within the jurisdiction.

A. Emergency plans ensure that all resources can be obtained through internal sources within the jurisdiction. the statements is FALSE.

To have jurisdiction, a court must have authority over the subject matter of the case and. the court must be able to exercise control over the defendant, or the property involved must be located in the area under the court's control.

The 5 Types of Jurisdiction That May Apply to Your Criminal Case

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Answer:

$105

Explanation:

It is obvious when any tax is imposed on the product it is ultimately collected from the consumer. Here, original cost was $100.00 and thereafter new excise tax of $5.00 on sales is imposed.

Which resulted in increase in price of Television from $100.00 to $105.00

Therefore, when a normal consumer buys such Television he shall be willing to pay $105.00

Answer:

Given:

Apr. 1 Sold merchandise for $3,000, with credit terms n/30; invoice dated April 1. The cost of the merchandise is $1,800.

Apr. 4 The customer in the April 1 sale returned $300 of merchandise for full credit. The merchandise, which had cost $180, is returned to inventory.

Apr. 8 Sold merchandise for $1,000, with credit terms of 1/10, n/30; invoice dated April 8. Cost of the merchandise is $700.

Apr. 11 Received payment for the amount due from the April 1 sale less the return on April 4.

The journal entries prepared to record the sales transactions of the merchandising company, using the perpetual inventory system and the gross method are as follows:

Apr. 1 Debit Accounts Receivable $3,000

Credit Sales Revenue $3,000

Debit Cost of goods sold $1,800

Credit Inventory $1,800

Apr. 4 Debit Sales Returns $300

Credit Accounts Receivable $300

Debit Inventory $180

Credit Cost of goods sold $180

Apr. 8 Debit Accounts Receivable $1,000

Credit Sales Revenue $1,000

Debit Cost of goods sold $700

Credit Inventory $700

Apr. 11 Debit Cash $2,700

Credit Accounts Receivable $2,700

Data Analysis:

Apr. 1 Accounts Receivable $3,000 Sales Revenue $3,000

credit terms n/30

Cost of goods sold $1,800 Inventory $1,800

Apr. 4 Sales Returns $300 Accounts Receivable $300

Inventory $180 Cost of goods sold $180

Apr. 8 Accounts Receivable $1,000 Sales Revenue $1,000

credit terms of 1/10, n/30

Cost of goods sold $700 Inventory $700

Apr. 11 Cash $2,700 Accounts Receivable $2,700

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Answer:

b. in excess of the par value from the original sale of common stock

Explanation:

The additional paid-in is the difference between the par value of a share and the value on which they are issued.

For example:

10,000 par value $5 issued at $8.60

[tex]$$issued - par value = additional paid-in[/tex]  

8.60 - 5 = 3.60 paid-in per share

10,000 shares * $3.6 = $36,000 total paid-in

Final answer:

Paid-in-capital in excess of par value is the amount received from the original sale of common stock that is above the designated par value of the shares. This additional capital becomes part of the company's equity and is recorded separately from the base par value on the balance sheet.

Explanation:

Paid-in-capital in excess of par represents b. in excess of the par value from the original sale of common stock. This occurs when a company issues stock at a price higher than its par value, which is the nominal or face value designated per share of stock in the corporate charter. The par value is typically a very low amount, like $0.01 per share, and the excess over this amount that's paid by investors becomes 'additional paid-in capital' or 'paid-in capital in excess of par' on the company's balance sheet.

For example, if a company with a par value of $0.01 per share issues 1 million shares at $10 per share, the company receives $10 million in total. However, only $10,000 is recorded as par value (1 million shares x $0.01), and the remaining $9,990,000 is recorded as paid-in capital in excess of par.

Explanation:

You will have to compare the Accounts payable of the current and previous year, and check the diference.

If the current year Account Payable is higher then the previous year, this means Google didn't pay as much, so it "save" cash for that diference so the diference will be positive.

If the opposite ocours, then Google pay more than previous year, so the diference will be posted as negatinve in the cash flow statment.

Accrued Expenses for this account, when doing the comparrison, if current is higher this means Google didn't pay as much expenses as it should be, so it save cash, the diference will be posted as positive.

If the actual is smaller, then Google pay more and the diference is posted as negtive.

Resuming, compare current with previous for each account,

Answer:

Seeking to lower overall costs, a South Korean car manufacturer sources many of the parts for its cars from other Asian countries. This practice demonstrates the: globalization of production. - first choice

Final answer:

Mango Company has an overapplied Factory Overhead balance of $10,000 at year-end due to the application of a predetermined overhead rate based on the actual direct labor costs.

Explanation:

The student's question relates to the calculation of the Factory Overhead account balance at year-end for Mango Company. Mango Company applies overhead based on direct labor costs. The estimated overhead costs were $300,000, while the actual overhead costs were $330,000. Direct labor costs were estimated to be $150,000, but the actual costs ended up being $170,000.

To find out the year-end balance of the Factory Overhead account, we need to calculate the applied overhead based on actual labor costs and compare it with the actual overhead costs incurred. The predetermined overhead rate is calculated as estimated overhead costs divided by estimated direct labor costs, which is $300,000 / $150,000 = 2. So, for every dollar of direct labor cost, Mango Company applies $2 in overhead costs.

Using this predetermined overhead rate, the applied overhead for the actual direct labor costs ($170,000) is 2 × $170,000 = $340,000. Since the actual overhead costs were $330,000, this results in a year-end Factory Overhead account with an overapplied balance of $340,000 - $330,000 = $10,000.

Answer:

Elston's retained earnings on December 31, 2017 are:  340,000

Explanation:

We are asked for ending Retained Earnings that is Calculate as follows:

[tex]$$Beginning Retained Earnings$$$+/- Net Income or Net Loss$$$- Dividends$$$Equals Ending Retained Earning[/tex]

So our first step would be to know net income:

[tex]$$Net Income = Revenue - Expenses[/tex]

Revenue = 700,000 Expenses = 750,000

Net Loss = 50,000

Now, along with the other givens. We are able to calculate the Ending Retained Earnings

Dividends = 60,000

Beginning Retained Earnings = 450,000

[tex]450,000 - 50,000 - 60,000 = 340,000[/tex]

The ending RE is 340,000

Final answer:

Elston Company's retained earnings as of December 31, 2017, are calculated by subtracting the net loss and dividends from the beginning retained earnings, which totals $340,000.

Explanation:

The subject of the question is to calculate the retained earnings of the Elston Company as of December 31, 2017. To determine the retained earnings, we need to consider the company's net income or loss and dividends. We begin with the retained earnings at the start of the year (Retained earnings, 1/1/17) and then adjust for the net income (or loss) and the dividends paid during the year.

The formula to calculate the ending retained earnings is:

In Elston's case:

So the retained earnings at the end of 2017 would be:

To make this decision, the government of Bangladesh needs to make a cost-benefit analysis between the two options.

The present value shows the cost of reducing emissions in the year 2016: $ 8bi

The value of the future rate should be calculated by financial mathematics, by the compound interest formula for the future value. Let's find out how much the present value in 2016 $ 8bi will be worth in 2050.

Future value = Present Value (1 + i) ^ n

Where: i = interest rate = 3% per annum

n = number of periods = 34

Future Value = 8,000,000,000 (1 +0.03) ^ 34

Future value = 21,855,242,364

Therefore, comparing both costs for the year 2050

2016: $ 21bi

2050: $ 25bi

The government should invest now because it will cost US $ 4 billion.

Answer:

The person who should sign client's informed consent for an invasive diagnostic procedure should be either relative( can be husband/wife/child) or a friend who has an durable power of attorney for healthcare of the client.

Explanation:

Dementia can be said as a group of condition where a person is suffering by impairment of at least two brain functions ,like memory loss and un able to make decisions on there own behalf. If a person is suffering from this condition , then someone else who has the authority to make decisions for that persons well being will sign the consent for the invasive diagnostic procedure.

Answer:

warranty expenditures for 2018: $ 1,785,000

Explanation:

warranty expected 3% of sales

58,000,000 x 3% = 1,740,000

Beginning - warrant expenditures + expected liab = ending warrant liability

We post our givens in the formula and solve for expenditures:

356,000 - X + 1,740,000 = 311,000

1,740,000 + 356,000 - 311,000 = expenditures

1,785,000 = expenditures

Answer: The following is true of performance management:  It focuses on analyzing employee performance by grouping them into predefined frequencies of performance ratings.

Performance management are predefined activities that check whether the short term and long term goals are achieved in an effective and cost-effective manner. It also focus on the performance of an organization, a sector, an worker, or the activity.

Therefore, the correct option is (a.)

Performance management is a broad process within an organization with the aim to better employee performance and competence. It comprises the process of performance appraisal, with the latter's ultimate goal being effective performance management. It plays a critical role in a firm's human resources strategy, central to employee motivation, development, and retention.

Performance management is an expansive process within an organization that aims at improving employee performance as well as enhancing their competence levels. It includes the process of performance appraisal but is not limited to it - the ultimate goal of all performance appraisal activities is to achieve effective performance management. Therefore, d. It is the ultimate goal of all performance-appraisal activities is the most accurate statement.

Performance appraisal is typically carried out multiple times a year, often involving a formal face-to-face meeting between the employee and their supervisor. This meeting provides a platform for communication about the employee’s performance, which could be praise for their excellent performance or concerns about aspects of their work needing improvement.

Overall, it is important to note that performance management is a critical aspect of an organization's human resources strategy, crucial to the motivation, development and retention of employees. It is a more comprehensive, ongoing process that consists of various performance appraisal activities, including feedback sessions, trainings, reward systems and progress monitoring.

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Answer:

Income Statment for the year ended december 31th, 20X9

Sales Revenue 437,100 (9,300 units x 47 price per unit)

COGS           223,200     (9,300 units x 24 unit cost)

Gross Profit         213,900

S&A            138,000

Net Income           75900

Explanation:

Unit cost:

DM + DL + VO + FO = 9 + 6 + 4 + 5 = 24

Final answer:

The cost of goods sold under absorption costing for the Osterman Company is $223,200. An income statement prepared using absorption costing shows a net income of $75,900, after accounting for sales revenue, cost of goods sold, gross margin, and fixed selling and administrative costs.

Explanation:

To calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS) under absorption costing, we must account for all manufacturing costs, including both variable and fixed costs, that are associated with the production of the goods sold. Given the information that the Osterman Company produced 10,000 units, sold 9,300 units at $47 each, and we know the variable costs per unit (direct material $9, direct labor $6, variable overhead $4) and fixed overhead per unit produced ($5), we can perform the following calculation:

Total variable costs per unit = $9 + $6 + $4 = $19

Total cost per unit under absorption costing = Total variable costs per unit + Fixed overhead per unit produced = $19 + $5 = $24

COGS under absorption costing = Total cost per unit x Units sold = $24 x 9,300 = $223,200 (as given)

The income statement using absorption costing for the Osterman Company would include Sales Revenue, Cost of Goods Sold, Gross Margin, Selling and Administrative expenses, and Net Income.

Sales Revenue: 9,300 units x $47 = $437,100

COGS: $223,200 (as calculated above)

Gross Margin: Sales Revenue - COGS = $437,100 - $223,200 = $213,900

Fixed Selling and Administrative costs: $138,000

Net Income: Gross Margin - Fixed Selling and Administrative costs = $213,900 - $138,000 = $75,900

Answer:

Intrinsic Value = $38.0025

Explanation:

[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Year&Dividends&Present \: Value\\0&1&-\\1&1.2&1.0984\\2&1.44&1.2065\\3&1.728&1.3252\\4&2.0736&1.4556\\5&51.2301&32.9168\\Intrinsic&Value&38.0025\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Fist, we calcualte the increase of the dividends, by multipling by (1+growth) 1.20 until year 4.

At year 5 we multiply by 1.05

Because from here the company will have a fixed growth rate, we can apply the dividend growth model

[tex]\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value[/tex]

1.52838/ (0.0925-0.05) = 51.2301

Next we have to bring all these dividends, which are placed in futures date, to present value:

[tex]\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV[/tex]

for example

[tex]\frac{1.728}{(1 + 0.0925)^{3} } = PV[/tex]

PV = 1.3252

Lastly, we add all the PV to get the intrinsic value of the share today.

Answer: When assessing the risks of investment, one should consider the political, economic, and legal risks of doing business in either Russia or Poland. The risk in Russia would probably be considered higher than the risk in Poland since Poland has been a member state of the European Union since 1 May 2004, with the Treaty of Accession 2003 signed on 16 April 2003 in Athens as the legal basis for Poland's accession to the EU.

Poland has already gained benefits and stability offered by the EU. Russia, by contrast, is still many years away from even being in a position to be considered by the EU for membership.

Explanation: A diligent investor wouldn't put a penny in a risky country.

As a CEO of a company, one must decide to invest an amount like $100 million in Poland, if given an opportunity to choose between Russia and Poland, because this investment will result in less chances of being a risky investment.

An investment risk can be referred to or considered as the risk that is associated with the loss of capital, partly or wholly, while being involved in a monetary engagement into classes of investments. Risk assessment is an essential tool of identifying and reducing the risks associated with investments.

In the condition given above, the investment risks in Russia will be higher than in Poland. This is because Russia is a country with higher fluctuations in its economies over a longer period of time, and thus, Poland investment will be less risky.

Therefore, the significance regarding investment risks has been aforementioned.

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The book value of the truck at the end of Year 1, using the double-declining-balance method, is $24,750 after accounting for a depreciation expense of $8,250.

To calculate the book value of the truck at the end of Year 1 using the double-declining-balance method, we first determine the depreciation rate. The double-declining rate is twice the straight-line rate, so for an 8-year useful life, the straight-line rate is 1/8, or 12.5%. Therefore, the double-declining rate is 25%.

The annual depreciation expense for the first year is then 25% of the truck's cost, excluding the salvage value, since the double-declining-balance method does not consider the salvage value in the first year's calculation. Hence, the depreciation for the first year is 25% of $33,000, which is $8,250. To find the book value at the end of Year 1, subtract this depreciation expense from the original cost of the truck:

Answer:

The equivalent units for direct materials is 800 units

Explanation:

The following information is giving in the question which is shown below:

1. Starting units = 700 units

2. Ending Work in progress = 200 units

3.Material = 50% of Ending WIP

                 = 100 units

By using these information, the equivalent units for direct materials is shown below:

= Starting units + units of Material

= 700 + 100

= 800 units

Thus, the equivalent units for direct materials is 800 units.

Answer:

The answer is True.

Explanation:

When Starbucks chose to focus on improving these aspects at work, Starbucks is engaging in human resources management initiatives that put employee first. There are many form of human resources management activities; those mentioned in the question include impacts through efforts made in the these HRM subfield: compensation and benefit, job design, and organizational culture.  

Answer:

Total cost for Job P123 = $1,400

Explanation:

For Job P123 we have following information

Total labor hours = 20

Direct Materials = $710

Direct Labor cost = $500

Manufacturing Overhead cost = 20 hours X $3.8 per labor hour = $76

Fixed Manufacturing Overhead Cost Allocated to this job =

($285,000 / 50,000 ) X 20 hours = $114

The total cost for Job P123 = $710 + $500 + $76 + $114 = $1,400

Note: Fixed Manufacturing cost is allocated based on number of actual direct labor hours, as the entire activity of the organisation is not provided.

The total cost for Job P123 = $1,400

Answer:

More

Explanation:

The producer of ballpoint pens would be more likely to acquire the ink supplier if the government were to impose an ink sales tax. This is because vertical integration would allow the producer to avoid paying the sales tax. Vertical integration refers to an arrangement in which the whole supply chain is owned by a particular company. This means that the company that acquired the supply chain can combine the different entities in order to satisfy all or several of its needs.

Answer:

Explanation:

Contribution : Contribution tells the availability of funds.  It is computed by taking a difference  of sales and variable cost.

The equation to compute net income is shown below:

Sales - Variable cost = Contribution ;

Contribution - Fixed expense = Net income

For computing the foretasted contribution for 2018, the following information is need to be considered which is shown below.  

1. As for variable cost, 50% should be recognized i.e 627,888 × 50% = $313,944

2. The fixed cost is increased by $156,000. So the revised fixed cost = 212,000 + $156,000 = $368,000

3. Other things remain same.

The calculation attachment is given below: