Answer:
Natural selection was proposed by Darwin.
Explanation:
He stated that when the limiting factor exist then different species of organism have to compete with each other and the species that is able to survive the competition stays and adapt themselves according to the condition.
Darwin studies natural selection in birds of Galapagos island. He must have faced difficulties and they are: complex environment is difficult to study, it may take longer to study different generations of a population and the birds may be dependent on other species that also might have evolved.
Your grandmother is very impressed with the size of the tomatoes from a plant that she planted in her garden. These tomatoes are ten times bigger than the average tomatoes. She said that she will collect the seeds from the tomatoes from that plant and re-plant them so she can get more plants with big tomatoes. From the information that you learned in class you know that the plants will produce the same kind of tomatoes if ______
Answer: The blank can be filled correctly by "if the seeds contain the gene or allele responsible for large size of the tomatoes"
Explanation:
In plants also, characters or traits of characters are defined by genes. Different alleles produce different traits of the same character.
For example, in classic Mendelian genetics, T was the allele responsible for tall plant trait while t was the responsible for dwarf trait.
Similarly, there would be a gene(s) responsible for size of the tomatoes. In addition, seeds are the products of sexual reproduction of plants. So, they may carry genetic combination different from parent plants (due to meiosis, crossing over, independent assortment, et cetera).
So, if the seed contains the gene or allele responsible for large size of tomatoes then only they will produce same kind of tomatoes.
Can you use species area curve to estimate extinction?
Answer:No
Explanation:To put the issue finally to rest, ecologists need to develop a general theory for estimating species extinction from species–area relationships. ... Second, while “extinction debt” is a valid and important concept in conservation biology, the backward SAR method is not the correct model for measuring the debt.
Suppose that you performed a version of the Hershey and Chase experiment, this time using 32P-labeled viruses that insert their double-stranded DNA into the DNA of the cells that they infect. The viral DNA is then treated as part of the cell's own DNA and is replicated during DNA replication and passed onto daughter cells when the cell divides. You infect a population of cells with the 32P-labeled viruses, and then let the infected cells go through two generations of cell divisions. If you then examine the cells, you should find 32P-labeled DNA in ____ of the cells.
Answer:
1/2 of the cells.
Explanation:
DNA replication is a semiconservative process which means that one strand of each of the two DNA double helices formed after one round of DNA replication is the parental strand and the other one is the newly formed strand.
Given that a population of the cells was infected with 32P-labeled viruses which would insert its DNA into the host cell's DNA, after one generation of cell division, the 32-P labeled DNA would be present in one strand of all the DNA molecules present in all the cells.
After the second generation of cell division, the 32-P labeled parental strand would be present in 1/2 of the total cells while the rest half of the cells would have only the normal DNA.
Final answer:
After infecting cells with 32P-labeled viruses and allowing two generations of cell division, 32P-labeled DNA should be found in half of the cells due to semi-conservative DNA replication.
Explanation:
When you infect a population of cells with 32P-labeled viruses and then let the infected cells go through two generations of cell divisions, we must consider how DNA replicates and is passed on to daughter cells. As DNA replication is semi-conservative, each new cell will receive one original (labeled) and one new (unlabeled) strand of DNA after the first division. After two divisions, assuming no errors or mutations, each cell will have either one strand of 32P-labeled DNA (from the first generation cells that had one labeled and one unlabeled strand) or no labeled DNA (from the first generation cells that had two unlabeled strands).
Therefore, after two rounds of cell division, the 32P label will be distributed among all four possible combinations of daughter cells. Specifically, after the first division, all cells will have 32P-labeled DNA, but after the second division, only half of the resulting cells will contain 32P-labeled DNA because each cell divides into two, with only one inheriting the labeled DNA template. As a result, you should find 32P-labeled DNA in half of the cells after two generations of cell division.
The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion Can move materials from a higher to a lower concentration. Doesn't require ATP. Can move materials from a lower to a higher concentration. Requires ATP. Requires transporter proteins.
Answer:
Requires transporter proteins.
Explanation:
Facilitated diffusion is similar to simple diffusion because both the methods carry molecules from higher to lower concentration. Since the movement is along the concentration gradient there is no requirement of energy or ATP. The difference between them lies in the use of transporter proteins. Polar molecules and large ions are not able to diffuse across the semi permeable membrane despite the concentration gradient because the membrane's hydrophobic nature repels them. Transporter proteins are embedded in the membrane and the molecules can pass through them to other side avoiding the hydrophobic membrane. Hence, facilitated diffusion requires transporter proteins.
Facilitated diffusion requires transporter proteins to assist the movement of substances down their concentration gradient, while simple diffusion does not involve such proteins and relies purely on concentration gradient. Both processes are forms of passive transport and do not require ATP.
Explanation:The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion lies in their mechanisms of transport across cell membranes. Simple diffusion moves substances from a higher to a lower concentration without the need for energy or transport proteins, relying solely on the concentration gradient. Facilitated diffusion, on the other hand, requires specific transporter proteins such as channel proteins or carrier proteins to assist in the movement of substances. Unlike active transport, facilitated diffusion does not require ATP because it also moves substances down their concentration gradient, but it enables substances that are not able to pass through the cell membrane easily, such as glucose and certain ions, to do so with the help of transport proteins.
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Listening to classical music increases heart rate variability, a measure of cardiac autonomic balance (in which increased levels reflect less stress and greater resilience), whereas listening to noise or rock music decreases heart rate variability (reflecting greater stress). True or false?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The heart rate is under the control of the autonomous nervous system. The sympathetic division of the autonomous nervous system serves to exhibit the flight or fight response by increasing the heart rate during stress conditions. The parasympathetic division of the autonomous nervous system has an antagonistic effect and serves to lower down the heart rate to restore the resting stage of the body.
Heart rate variability reflects the balance of effect of these two divisions of the autonomous nervous system on the heart rate. Constant intervals between the successive heartbeats reflect lower heart rate variability. It is a measure of higher stress and reduced ability of the body to withstand the stress conditions (the resilience).
External factors affect heart rate variability. For example, listening to the calm and peaceful classical music reduces the activity of sympathetic division and thereby increases the heart rate variability and resilience by allowing the person to stay calm in the stress conditions.
On the other hand, noise and rock music increases the control of sympathetic division on the heart rate and thereby decreases the heart rate variability.
In a cross between two strains that are true breeding for purple and white flowers, the F2 phenotypic ration would be 1/4 purple 1/4 white, and 1/2 lavender if the flower color phentotype exhibits incomplete dominance.True / False.
Answer:
Only if one of individual has incomplete dominance.
Explanation:
Using a Punnet square, only if one individual has incomplete dominance could have this ration. Otherwise, if the 2 individuals had a homozygous phenotype, whit one individual for dominant and the other for recessive, the ratio would be all purple.
The statement in the question is true. In incomplete dominance, neither allele is dominant, resulting in a blend in the phenotype. Hence, in the F2 generation, there would be a 1:2:1 ratio of purple, lavender, and white flowers.
Explanation:The question posed is whether, in a cross between two strains that are true breeding for purple and white flowers, the F2 phenotypic ratio would be 1/4 purple, 1/4 white, and 1/2 lavender if the flower color phenotype exhibits incomplete dominance. This statement is true.
In the event of incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other, and thus, the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is somewhere in between the phenotypes of the homozygous genotypes. Therefore, when the F1 generation (which will all have lavender flowers) self-fertilizes, the probability of their offspring having purple, white, or lavender flowers will be in the 1:2:1 ratio (purple:lavender:white).
Taking Mendel's experiments as an example, true-breeding plants for violet and white flowers were crossed. The F1 generation all had violet flowers, demonstrating dominance. In the F2 generation, though, there was a 3:1 ratio of violet to white flowers, which is characteristic of dominant and recessive patterns, not incomplete dominance. If incomplete dominance was in effect, a blend of the parent phenotypes would happen, making for lavender flowers in the F1 generation, and a 1:2:1 ratio in the F2 generation.
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Originally, there was concern that sealants would trap bacteria in the pit and the caries would proliferate. However, researchers are now experimenting with sealing interproximal incipient caries.
True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Originally, there was concern that sealants would trap bacteria in the pit and the caries would proliferate. However, researchers are now experimenting with sealing interproximal incipient caries.
Dental sealants are usually placed on the chewing (occlusal) surface of the posterior permanent teeth - molars and premolars - to help protect them against caries. This is because the chewing surfaces of the molars and premolars have grooves that make them vulnerable to tooth decay. These depressions can be deep, making cleaning difficult in these areas. Bacterial plaque builds up in these grooves and the bacteria acid from this enamel deminerization plaque develops caries. Fluoride helps to prevent tooth decay and to protect tooth decay surfaces and sealants, fill the grooves, thus preventing food from becoming trapped in the region and causing tooth decay, ensuring superior protection for teeth with deep grooves.
The statement is true. Initially feared to trap bacteria, sealants are now experimented with for managing interproximal incipient caries, supported by research on their effectiveness in preventing caries progression.
The statement 'Originally, there was concern that sealants would trap bacteria in the pit and the caries would proliferate. However, researchers are now experimenting with sealing interproximal incipient caries' is true.
Initial Concerns:
Originally, there was a worry that applying sealants to the pits and fissures of teeth might trap bacteria underneath the sealant.The concern was that this trapped bacteria would continue to grow and cause the caries to worsen.Research Developments:
Subsequent research has demonstrated that sealants can be effective even if applied over existing bacteria.Studies have shown that the bacteria trapped under the sealant become deprived of nutrients and oxygen, which inhibits their growth and activity.Effectiveness in Caries Prevention:
Sealants are effective in preventing the progression of early caries, also known as incipient caries.The sealing material creates a barrier that protects the enamel from further demineralization and decay.Interproximal Incipient Caries:
Researchers are now experimenting with using sealants to manage interproximal incipient caries, which are early-stage caries found between the teeth.This approach aims to arrest the progression of these early caries and prevent the need for more invasive treatments like fillings.Clinical Evidence:
Clinical evidence supports the use of sealants to manage and prevent the progression of both occlusal (on the biting surfaces) and interproximal caries.The application of sealants has become a recognized preventive measure in modern dentistry.Preventive Dental Strategy:
The use of sealants is part of a broader preventive strategy to maintain oral health and reduce the incidence of cavities.This preventive measure aligns with the shift towards minimally invasive dentistry, focusing on preserving natural tooth structure.In conclusion, the statement is true because initial concerns about sealants trapping bacteria have been addressed by research showing that sealants can prevent the progression of caries.
A car travels 10 meters north, then 25 meters south, then 30 meters north. The trip takes 15 seconds.
A- what is its average speed?
B-what is its average velocity?
Why is your question in Biology section, it should be in mathematics or in physics but that's OK
The answer of A is - 21.6666666666 or 21.7
The answer of B is - 21.6666666666 or 21.7
the answer of A and B are equal because speed and velocity is the same thing
The glycocalyx: binds solutes and transports them across the plasma membrane. is bound to the inner or outer surface of the plasma membrane and is easily separated from it. contains pores or channels through which water and solutes may pass. binds to extracellular structures and is important in cell recognition and lubrication of the cell surface.
Answer:
Binds to extracellular structures and is important in cell recognition and lubrication of the cell surface.
Explanation:
They form a peri-cellular matrix around the cell and is observed as a fuzzy cell coat under a microscope. Glycocalyx molecules are mostly made up of carbohydrates bonded with lipids and proteins. They are significant in cell adhesion especially in tissues and for protection in prokaryotes. These molecules are also important in cell-to-cell communication and recognition.
An experimental forest ecosystem is enclosed in a sealed greenhouse. The entire ecosystem, including the air and soil, is treated with an extremely potent fungicide that kills all fungal life stages including spores. What will probably happen next?
Answer: The forest would eventually die.
Explanation:
Fungi (along with bacteria) are responsible for "recycling" all the nutrients in an ecosystem.
For example when an animal or a plant dies, fungi consume all the organic matter and they break it down into Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus and other essential elements, and then release it into que soil or the atmosphere.
If they are removed from an ecosystem, plants wouldn't be able to get these elements, because they would all be "trapped" in complex molecules. As a result, the plants and every organism they act as food to, would die.
Which of the following is NOT an example of biotechnology?
a) Bacterial production of vinegar
b) Bacterial production of yogurt
c) Bacterial production of human insulin
d) Bacterial production of French bread
e) Bacterial degradation of a dead animal
I think its A) Bacterial production of vinegar...
What is the structural feature that allows dna to replicate?
Answer: Its double helix structure.
Explanation:
Double helix structure during DNA replication unwinds by helicase enzymes. This allows transcription to occur where both DNA strands serves as a template for precise copying of genes or nucleotide bases. Double helix structure also provides stability and most importantly accurate storage of information in DNA.
DNA replicates thanks to its double helix structure, where complementary base pairing allows strands to serve as templates for new strands. Enzymes like helicases, topoisomerases, and DNA polymerase, facilitate the unwinding and synthesis of DNA, ensuring high fidelity replication.
Explanation:The structural feature that allows DNA to replicate is the complementary base pairing of its double helix structure. The double helix is held together by a cumulative effect of millions of hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases, which, despite their collective strength, are relatively weak individually. This weak bonding allows the strands to unzip easily during replication. During this process, each strand can act as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand, a mechanism that is both simple and effective for preserving genetic information and facilitating high fidelity in DNA replication.
Important enzymes such as helicases and topoisomerases are involved in unwinding the double helix and relieving supercoiling, making the DNA accessible for replication. Another key enzyme is DNA polymerase, which adds new nucleotides to the growing strand but requires a primer to initiate the process. This semi-conservative mechanism of replication, where each new DNA molecule contains one parental and one new strand, ensures that each daughter cell receives an accurate copy of the DNA following cell division.
In 1907, a horse named Clever Hans was said to be able to answer math problems posed to him. He would tap out the correct answers with his hoof. However, an investigation revealed that if Clever Hans could not see the person asking the question, he did not provide correct answers. What does this suggest?
A : This illustrates the importance of including control groups -- without a second horse, no conclusion can be drawn.
B : Clever Hans was responding to subtle visual cues from the questioner.
C : Clever Hans was motivated to answer correctly by social interaction.
D : All of the choices are correct.
Answer:
d. all of the choices are correct.
Explanation:
To be sure that this horse is a clever horse, need to be compared with other horses, that is the reason why is necessary a control group and contrast the results.
Also could be that the horse by visual contact, is a conductive behavior, for example the wink of a person. In this case the control group is also useful to compare results.
Horses like people, so another explanation is that by visual contact, the animal feel security and is easily to it to answer the problems.
Final answer:
The investigation into Clever Hans suggested that he was responding to subtle visual cues from the person asking questions, illustrating the Clever Hans Effect, where animals respond to unintentional human signals rather than understanding the question.
Explanation:
The investigation into Clever Hans, the horse said to be able to solve math problems by tapping his hoof, reveals that Clever Hans was not actually performing mathematical calculations. Instead, he was responding to subtle visual cues from the person asking the question. This phenomenon, known as the Clever Hans Effect, illustrates how animals can be highly attuned to human body language and unintentional signals. When Clever Hans could not see the person asking the question, his ability to 'answer' correctly was compromised, suggesting his responses were not based on understanding math, but on reading human cues.
Use the following study to answer the following question(s): A researcher applies varying amounts of fertilizer (0, 2, 4, 8, 10 units) to 50 potted tomato plants. All other variables that may affect the outcome (watering, temperature, sunlight, plant size, etc.) are kept the same from pot to pot. At the end of the growing season, the tomatoes grown on each plant are weighed to determine which fertilizer level produced the largest tomato yield.
Which variable is the dependent variable?
The plant size at the end of the growing season
The fertilizer amount
The tomato yield at the end of the growing season
The temperature
In this case, the tomato yield at the end of the growing season is dependent variable. Hence, option third is correct.
Dependent variables -
The variable whose values are influenced by other variables is known as dependent variable.
Example- Level of blood sugar level, Energy consumption etc.
Independent variables -
The type of variable which is not affected by other variables but change in its value can influence the dependent variable. This variable stands alone.
Example- Person's age is independent variable it will not be affected by how much they go to school, how much they sleep etc.
Hence, in this case option third the tomato yield is dependent variable because it will depend on the amount of fertilizer used, temperature and sunlight.
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In the given study, the dependent variable is the tomato yield at the end of the growing season, as it is what is being measured in response to the varying amounts of fertilizer.
Explanation:In the research study provided, the dependent variable is the tomato yield at the end of the growing season. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and measured to determine the effect of the independent variable, which in this experiment is the amount of fertilizer applied to the tomato plants. All the other factors such as plant size, watering, temperature, and sunlight were controlled to ensure they do not impact the dependent variable and to maintain the validity of the experiment.
.RNA molecules physically link the mRNA message and the _______ it encodes for.
Answer: DNA molecule
Explanation: The RNA is a molecule very important for the process cellular, in charge of moving the genetic material present into DNA to synthesize proteins through of RNAm
RNA molecules physically link the mRNA message and the amino acids it encodes for.
Explanation:This procedure uses transfer RNA particles to convey amino acids to the ribosome, where ribosomal RNA at that point joins amino acids together to shape coded proteins.
Ribonucleic acid or RNA is polymeric molecule fundamental in different biological aspects in regulation, expression, coding, and decoding of the genes. DNA and RNA are nucleic acids, and, alongside carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids comprise the four significant macromolecules basic for every single known type of life.
Which of the choices below does NOT involve tissue perfusion?
A. absorption of nutrients from the digestive tract
B. blood clotting
C. gas exchange in the lungs
D. delivery of oxygen and nutrients to, and removal of wastes from, tissue cells 4 points
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. Blood clotting.
Explanation:
Tissue profusion is the path of blood flow or the lymphatic fluid with the help of the lymphatic system or the circulatory system to a tissue area or organ. It is helpful to transport nutrients or eliminating waste from the blood so the adequate tissue profusion is required to maintain.
All three options except blood clotting are related to the transport of nutrients, oxygen of removal of waste with the help of a circulatory system of the lymphatic system. Blood clotting is a region specific event and does not involve profusion.
Thus, the correct answer is option - b. Blood clotting.
Final answer:
Blood clotting (B) does not involve tissue perfusion, as it is a biochemical process rather than one involving the flow of blood to tissues for nourishment or waste removal.
Explanation:
Non-Involved Tissue Perfusion Process
The process that does NOT involve tissue perfusion is B. blood clotting. Tissue perfusion refers to the passage of blood through the circulatory system to an organ or a tissue. It involves the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissue cells and the removal of waste products. Processes such as absorption of nutrients from the digestive tract (A), gas exchange in the lungs (C), and the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to tissue cells (D) all involve tissue perfusion. However, blood clotting is a biochemical process that leads to the formation of a clot to stop bleeding and does not directly involve the flow of blood to tissues for nourishment or waste removal.
Which of the following statements regarding biopolymers is false?
a. Different sequences of the monomers can lead to different functions.
b. Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers.
c. A wide, almost uncountable variety of polymers can be created from just a few monomers.
d. Different linkages between the monomers can lead to different functions.
e. Biopolymers can fold up into complex shapes.
Answer:
b. Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers.
Explanation:
The properties of the biopolymers are not exactly the same as that of their respective monomers. The solubility of a biopolymer depends on its final three-dimensional packing and the type of the monomers present on the surface.
For example, cellulose is a polysaccharide of D-glucose. Glucose is a simple sugar and is water-soluble. However, cellulose is water-insoluble.
The false statement about biopolymers is that only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers. Biopolymers like cellulose are insoluble despite being made of soluble glucose monomers, and proteins showcase the diversity in function due to their complex shapes and sequences.
Explanation:The statement among those provided regarding biopolymers that is false is option (b): Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers. This statement is not true because biopolymers can be formed from both soluble and insoluble monomers. For instance, cellulose is an insoluble polymer that is made up of glucose monomers, which are soluble.
Different sequences of monomers can indeed lead to different functions in biopolymers, and different linkages between monomers can also influence function (options a and d). It is also accurate that a wide variety of polymers can be created from a few monomers (option c) and that biopolymers can fold up into complex shapes (option e), affecting their biological roles. Proteins, for example, can act as enzymes, which serve as catalysts in biological reactions, highlighting the importance of their structure to their function.
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What is meant by "gaps" within living things or fossils? 1. missing links
2. a distinct and obvious lack of transition between all higher levels of taxa
3. specimens representing evidence for evolutionary transitions
Answer:
Option (1)
Explanation:
The missing link refers to those fossils that are believed to be connecting two separate groups of organisms in their stages of evolution. They had the characteristics of both the group of organisms. These are the extinct species, and only the traces of it are found to be embedded in some rocks. So there is no proper evidence that supports their existence in the past.
They are considered to be hypothetical, diminished organisms that occur during the evolutionary stages of a group of organism. They are also known as the 'gaps' within living things or fossils.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Jennifer’s children have always been short when compared to their classmates. One day her son blurted out, "I can’t wait until I’m in college because I’ll be really tall by then!" Her daughter chimed in with, "Me, too!" Jennifer knew she needed to tell them that after puberty: _________
Answer:
Both her son and daughter will be shorter than their classmates.
Explanation:
According to the given information, both the son and daughter of Jennifer are shorter than their classmates. The onset of puberty (10-14 yrs for girls and 12-16 yrs for boys) is marked by the exit from the growth phase and the beginning of the reproductive phase.
Humans exhibit exclusive growth and reproductive phages in the life cycle. Before the onset of puberty, growth hormone is released from anterior pituitary which in turn is responsible for is responsible for growth such as an increase in height of children.
Growth hormone directly targets the metabolism and increase the rate of metabolism. It increases the uptake of nutrients from the blood and their storage as proteins and DNA for growth to support the cell division and deposition of the matrix of bone tissues. The main target of growth hormone is bone and skeletal muscles.
The onset of puberty is marked by the release of sex hormones in males and females. This is the phase of attainment of sexual maturity and the development of secondary sexual characters. There is no growth of bones and muscles after puberty.
When moose initially colonized Isle Royale, they encountered an environment that lacked predators and had ample food sources. At this time point, the initial number of moose was also well below the carrying capacity of Isle Royale. As a result, it is likely that the moose population of Isle Royale initially demonstrated _____ growth.
Answer:
exponential
Explanation:
According to my research on different types of growth factors, I can say that based on the information provided within the question they initially demonstrated exponential growth. The refers to something that is growing at an alarming rate because all factors around it are in it's favor, which in this situation since there were no predators and an abundance of food the Moose had perfect conditions to thrive.
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Parents who tell their children not to read in dim light for fear of ruining their eyes are voicing well-founded concerns. repeating unfounded "old wives tales." unnecessarily scaring their children. actually putting the children at further risk for myopia.
Answer:
Voicing well-founded concerns.
Explanation:
Eyes are one of the most important sense organs of our body that helps us to see the world. Eyes need proper care and one should take care of their eyes to protect them from the harmful environmental conditions.
Parents always guide their children that they should not read in dim light. Dim light affects the eye muscles and children can develop several eye related problems by studying in the dim light. Parents are concern about their children health.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
The belief that reading in dim light damages eyesight is unfounded. While it can cause temporary eye strain, it doesn't lead to long term issues, such as myopia, which is primarily genetic and not influenced by reading conditions.
Explanation:The warning that parents often give their children to not read in dim light as it may damage their sight, is an unfounded concern. While reading in dim light might cause eye strain, which can result in discomfort such as dry or scratchy eyes, it does not damage your eyesight or lead to myopia. Myopia, or short-sightedness, is a condition where light focuses in front of, not on, the retina, causing distant objects to appear blurred. Primarily, it is genetic and not influenced by reading conditions. However, prolonged near work like reading can potentially cause eye strain, which is temporary and should not contribute to the development or progression of myopia.
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Which of the following is a good scientific hypothesis?
A) Gasoline is made up of particles that can not be seen.
B) If a plant is give less oxygen than what is present in the air, the plant will grow more slowly
C) People who smoke cough more often.
D) More people carry laptops at the airport on Tuesdays then on Saturdays.
True or False. The growth rate of a certain population increases very quickly for a time and then levels after zero the most likely reason for the growth rate level after zero is that the population reach the carrying capacity of the environment.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Answer:
Exponential population growth: When resources are unlimited, populations exhibit exponential growth, resulting in a J-shaped curve. ... In logistic growth, population expansion decreases as resources become scarce. It levels off when the carrying capacity of the environment is reached, resulting in an S-shaped curve.
Explanation:Exponential population growth: When resources are unlimited, populations exhibit exponential growth, resulting in a J-shaped curve. ... In logistic growth, population expansion decreases as resources become scarce. It levels off when the carrying capacity of the environment is reached, resulting in an S-shaped curve.
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Question 15
How many half-lives does it take for a radioactive substance to decay until only one quarter of the original substance remains?
A
one
B
two
C
three
D
four
Two half-lives it takes for a radioactive substance to decay until only one quarter of the original substance remains, hence option B is correct.
What is the half-life of a radioactive substance?A radionuclide's half-life is the amount of time it takes for half of its radioactive atoms to decay. A good rule of thumb is that you will have less radiation than 1% of the original amount after seven half-lives.
A substance's half-life is the length of time it takes for half of it to decompose. The remaining half will, however, decompose after two half-lives, leaving you with only 25% of the original chemical.
Therefore, two half-lives it takes for a radioactive substance to decay until only one quarter of the original substance remains.
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Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?
Answer:
The answer is Simple Columnar epithelium.
Explanation:
The simple columnar epithelium may be found at the digestive tract and respiratory tract.
In the digestive system, absorption of nutrients mostly occur in the duodenum (part of the small intestines). This is covered by simple columnar epithelia with microcilia at the apical portion, also called the brush border. The brush border provides the digestive tract a broad surface area to allow optimal nutrient absorption.
In the respiratory system, a specialized type of simple columnar cells, called goblet cells, produce mucus for the mucous membrane to catch or transport foreign objects out of the system. Microcilia is also present at the apical portion of the cell and serves to trap foreign bodies that enter the respiratory tract.
Suppose individual robins that have longer beaks have somewhat more offspring than those with shorter beaks, and that this has led to increases in beak length over time. We can say that beak size is associated with the _______ of the robin, and that there is _______ selection operating on beak size.
Answer:
Individual robins that have longer beaks have somewhat more offspring than those with shorter beaks. This has led to increases in beak length over time. We can say that beak size is associated with the adaptive evolution of the robin, and that there is directional selection operating on beak size.
Explanation:
Adaptive evolution refers to changes in the organism that lead to the evolution of the species and that are adaptive to determine conditions of the environment. Birds adapt to diverse ecological niches showing specialized beak forms to improve functions such as feeding, mating, defending, competing, and etcetera. These factors play an important role in beak shaping. Natural selection produce adaptive evolution. There are different kinds of natural selection, but in the present example, directional selection is operating.
Directional selection increases in the proportion of individuals with an extreme phenotypic trait, in this case, large beaks. This selection presents more frequently in those cases in which interactions between living organisms and the environment modify in the same direction.
What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl with penicillin? The cell will undergo osmotic lysis. Penicillin will diffuse into the cell. Water will enter the cell. The cell will plasmolyze. No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
Answer:
The cell will plasmolyze
Explanation:
Plamolysis is a process that cells suffer and that is characterized by a loss of water.
By placing the bacterial cell in a solution of 10% NaCl with penicillin we will be facing different situations.
First, penicillin is an antibiotic that affects the cell wall by destroying it. By not having the cell wall, the bacteria is more vulnerable to everything outside.
When deposited in a hypertonic medium, this means that the concentration of solutes from outside is greater than that of the protoplast (cytoplasm). The water in the protoplast will start to flow out of it and the cell will shrink. This decrease in size causes the plasma membrane to separate from the cell wall.
Final answer:
A bacterial cell placed in a 10% NaCl solution would undergo plasmolysis due to the hypertonic environment. Penicillin would inhibit the repair of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death. The cell wall's peptidoglycan is crucial for preventing lysis in hypotonic environments and counteracting hypertonic stress.
Explanation:
When a bacterial cell is placed in a 10% NaCl solution, the environment becomes hypertonic relative to the interior of the bacterial cell. As a result, water will move out of the cell, causing the cell to shrink and the plasma membrane to pull away from the cell wall, a process known as plasmolysis. This process is distinct from osmotic lysis, which occurs in a hypotonic environment where water enters a cell, leading it to swell and potentially burst. Penicillin targets bacterial cells by inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. Due to the hypertonic environment and the action of penicillin, a bacterial cell would likely undergo plasmolysis and be prevented from repairing its cell wall, leaving the cell unable to counteract the osmotic effects and likely leading to cell death.
Penicillin works by disrupting the cell wall construction, leading to the eventual death of the bacteria through cell wall damage. In a hypertonic solution like one with 10% NaCl, penicillin would further prevent the weakened cell from counteracting the osmotic stress. Gram-positive bacteria stain purple after Gram staining while Gram-negative bacteria stain pink. The presence of a strong cell wall containing peptidoglycan in bacteria prevents them from bursting in a hypotonic environment, while in a hypertonic environment they experience plasmolysis.
The ability to reproduce results is an important part of any
The ability to reproduce consistently refers to how organisms reproduce to ensure the continuation of their species. It plays a crucial role in biology, ensuring the transfer of genetic material from parents to offsprings and promoting genetic diversity.
Explanation:The ability to reproduce results or more specifically, reproduce consistently, is primarily a principal of experimental science including Biology, Physics and Chemistry. In the context of Biology and the information given, it refers to how all forms of life, from single-celled organisms to complex multicellular organisms, have the ability to reproduce. Reproduction, either asexual or sexual, allows for the transfer of genetic material from parent organisms to the offsprings. This transfer of genes ensures the continuation of species. For example, sexual reproduction creates a genetic diversity in offsprings, which equips them better for survival.
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A point in development when organisms are particularly susceptible to certain kinds of stimuli in their environments, but the absence of those stimuli does not always produce irreversible consequences. A. Critical PeriodB. Sensitive PeriodC. Embryonic PeriodD. Assimilation
The correct answer is B. Sensitive period
Explanation:
In development, the sensitive period refers to a lapse of time in which organisms are more susceptible or receptive to stimuli and therefore during this time there can be great advances in development. Additionally, different from critical periods sensitive periods do not imply irreversible consequence if the stimuli are not presented. For example, in human beings from birth to the age of 6 years, children are more receptive to learn and acquire certain skills such as learning a new language if exposed to it and therefore this can be considered as a sensitive period. Considering this, it can be concluded the definition presented refers to the Sensitive period.
identify the process used to form the covalent peptide bonds that join amino acids into a polypeptide.
A peptide bond is the covalent bond that joins amino acids together into a polypeptide through dehydration synthesis.
Explanation:A peptide bond is the covalent bond that joins amino acids together into a polypeptide. This bond is formed through a process called dehydration synthesis, where two amino acids combine and a molecule of water is released. The carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the incoming amino acid, resulting in the formation of a peptide bond.
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Amino acids form polypeptides through a process called dehydration synthesis, creating a peptide bond, a type of covalent bond. The chain formed is known as the polypeptide. The sequence and number of these amino acids can influence the protein's final characteristics.
Explanation:Amino acids come together to form polypeptides through the formation of peptide bonds, a type of covalent bond. This process is known as dehydration synthesis. Here, the carboxyl group (COOH) of one amino acid and the amino group (NH2) of another amino acid combine. This combination leads to the release of a water molecule, forming the peptide bond.
The resulting chain of amino acids is known as a polypeptide. If the chain contains fewer than 100 amino acids, it is referred to as a polypeptide rather than a protein. The sequence and number of amino acids in the polypeptide can dictate the protein's shape, size, and function.
It's worth noting that after the process of protein synthesis, there may be post-translational modifications to make the protein fully functional. These modifications could include cleavage, phosphorylation, or the addition of other chemical groups to the polypeptide.
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