Answer:
Nonrheumatic mitral (valve) insufficiency
I34.0 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes.
Explanation:
ICD-10 code for mitral valve regurgitation: I05.8
In the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10), the code I05.8 is used to represent mitral valve regurgitation. ICD-10 codes are alphanumeric codes that are used to classify and categorize medical conditions, diseases, and other health-related issues for the purpose of medical billing, coding, and statistical analysis. The code I05.8 specifically falls under the category of "Other rheumatic heart diseases," and it is used to identify cases of mitral valve regurgitation that are due to rheumatic heart disease.
It's important to note that ICD-10 codes provide a standardized way of documenting and communicating medical conditions, making it easier for healthcare providers, insurance companies, and researchers to accurately classify and track various health conditions. The use of specific codes like I05.8 helps ensure accurate and consistent recording of medical information, which is essential for medical record keeping, patient care, and healthcare management. When diagnosing and documenting medical conditions, healthcare professionals use the appropriate ICD-10 codes to convey specific information about the condition, its cause, and other relevant details.
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Which of the following choices has the parts of the bronchial tree in the correct order from largest (in diameter) to smallest (in diameter)?
a) Primary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Terminal bronchioles, Secondary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Alveoli
b) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Terminal bronchioles, Respiratory bronchioles, Alveoli
c) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli
d) Primary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli
Answer:
The answer is B: Primary bronchus, secondary bronchus, tertiary bronchus, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveoli.
The correct order of the parts of the bronchial tree is: Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli.
Explanation:
The correct order of the parts of the bronchial tree from largest to smallest in diameter is:
Primary bronchus: This divides into secondary bronchi and is the first bifurcation of the trachea.Secondary bronchus: These are branches of the primary bronchi that lead to different lobes of the lungs.Tertiary bronchus: These are further divisions of the secondary bronchi and lead to different segments of the lung.Respiratory bronchioles: These are the first branches that contain alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.Terminal bronchioles: These are the narrowest branches of the bronchial tree.Alveoli: These are tiny air sacs at the end of the respiratory bronchioles where oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide.So, the correct choice is c) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli.
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Aldosterone will _____.
a. promote an increase in blood pressure
b. promote a decrease in blood volume
c. result in a larger output of urine
d. decrease sodium reabsorption
Answer:
The answer is A promote an increase in blood pressure
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone produced in the renal cortex and acts by retaining sodium and eliminating potassium which leads to an increase in blood pressure.
Complete the following sentence that describe the alimentary canal and its walls:
The ____________ is composed mostly of connective tissue, nerves, and vessels, which help to nourish surrounding tissues.
The submucosa is composed mostly of connective tissue, nerves, and vessels, which help to nourish surrounding tissues.
Hope this helps!
Name a sensory modality that adapts quickly: _________: name on that adapts slowly, if at all: ___________.
Answer:
A sensory modality that adapts quickly is touch and smell, whereas pain adapts slowly or not at all.
Sensory modality is the specific type of sensation like touch and smell, it used in detection of a change in the environment. As, sensory modality is the property where one sensation is distinguished from another and individual sensory modality represented the sensation of specific type of stimulus.
Pain adapts slowly or not at all because of the lack of adaptation which is important to survival.
Pacinian corpuscles are rapidly adapting receptors that respond to changes in pressure and vibration, while Merkel cells are slowly adapting receptors that continue to respond to constant light touch stimuli.
A sensory modality that adapts quickly is the Pacinian corpuscle, which is specialized for detecting transient pressure and high-frequency vibration. On the other hand, a sensory modality that adapts slowly, if at all, is the Merkel cell, which is involved in sensing light touch and is found in the fingertips and lips.
The adaptation rate of sensory receptors is crucial for determining their response to stimuli. Rapidly adapting receptors like Pacinian corpuscles quickly respond to changes in stimulus, such as the start or stop of pressure, making them adept at detecting movement and vibration. Conversely, slowly adapting receptors like Merkel cells continue to respond to a constant stimulus, providing detailed information about the shape and pressure applied to the skin.
Gap junctions and desmosomes are associated with what structure?
A) Intercalated disc
B) tight junctions
C) NMJ
D) synapses
Answer:
the correct answer is option A- Intercalated disc
Explanation:
Intercalated discs are the characteristic microscopic feature of the cardiac muscle which allows the cardiac cells to work as a single unit or syncytium.
The disc allows the cardiomyocytes (an individual cell) to act as one unit due to the "desmosomes and gap junctions" which allows the diffusion of ions to pass to nearby cardiomyocytes and allow depolarization of the entire heart which causes contraction.
Thus, option A- Intercalated disc is the correct answer.
A nurse is assessing a client who receives monthly injections of cyanocobalamin. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
a. Absence of hand tremors
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
d. Improved appetite
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication? would be: A: Absence of hand tremors.
Explanation:
Cyanocobalamin, also known as vitamin B-12, is vital for the correct functioning and formation of the central nervous system, and the correct functioning of all the nerves in the human body. Absence of it due to a disease like pernicious anemia, or infection by bacteria, or other parasites, as well as lack of intake from dietary customs, will lead to malformation, malfunctioning, and damage of the nervous system since this vitaming is central to formation of myelin, and other substances. In order to correct the lack of normal levels of B-12, people receive this medication, which is most commonly used as subcutaneous, or intramuscular injections, and one of the therapeutic effects it will have, and which will be visible, will be the absence, or diminishing of hand, and other body part tremors, as well as the feeling of numbness, or tickling, in body extremeties. So A, would be the best choice.
Final answer:
A hematocrit of 45% indicates that cyanocobalamin injections are effectively treating vitamin B12 deficiency by restoring normal red blood cell levels, which is a therapeutic effect of the medication.
Explanation:
Cyanocobalamin is a synthetic form of vitamin B12 used to treat or prevent deficiencies and related medical conditions, such as pernicious anemia. When assessing a client who receives monthly injections of cyanocobalamin, the nurse should look for signs that indicate effective treatment of B12 deficiency. Among the answer choices provided, hematocrit 45% reflects a normal range and indicates that the medication is having a therapeutic effect by restoring normal red blood cell volume and thus treating the anemia commonly associated with vitamin B12 deficiency.
The repeated pattern of distressed breathing that has gradual increase of deep breathes followed by shallow breathes and apnea is called?
A. Bronchospasm
B. Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea
Answer:
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
Explanation:
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration may be defined as one of the abnormal breathing pattern in human beings. This respiration is more common during wakefulness or sleep of an individual.
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration has the repeated pattern of deeper and faster breathing followed by apnea. This pattern repeated usually from 30 seconds to two minutes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
Cheyne-Stokes Respirations
Explanation:
In Cheyne-Stokes respiration, a client’s breathing pattern is characterized by progressively deeper and faster breathing, that is, hyperventilation followed by apnea.
Blood is pumped into which of these vessels during ventricular systole?
a. aorta
b. pulmonary arteries
c. pulmonary vein
d. Both a and b are correct
Answer:
d. Both a and b are correct
Explanation:
Blood is pumped into aorta and pulmonary arteries vessels during ventricular systole.
Blood is pumped into which of these vessels during ventricular systole?
a. aorta
b. pulmonary arteries
c. pulmonary vein
d. Both a and b are correct
Which glands are associated with a hair follicle? Are these glands classified as exocrine or endocrine?
Answer:
The glands that are associated with the hair follicle are the glandulas cebaseas, which secrete a waxy liquid that keeps the hair lubricated.
They do not enter the classification of endocrines or exocrines since these are other types of glands that have functions of a purely hormonal type in the body.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Tinnitus
b. Insomnia
c. Fluid retention
d. Orthostatic hypotension
Answer:
C. Fluid Retention
Explanation:
Pioglitazone belongs to the family of Thiazolidinediones, they act as ligands of the PPARgamma receptor, a pair of nuclear hormone receptors that participate in the regulation of genes related to the metabolism of glucose and lipids. They are used for patients with DM2, specially those with renal disease, since they do not metabolize in the kidney. Among their therapeutical effects they increase secretion of adiponectine, lower liver fat and redistributes it to the subcutaneal layer of the skin. Their side effects include:
-Hepatotoxicity with increased liver enzymes
- Increase risk of long-term fractures
-Weight gain, due to fluid retention with edema. The edema is formed by intracellular effects by the stimulation of Na + pumps which stimulates the hydrosaline retention.
During sexual arousal in males and females, erotic thoughts and/or sensory stimulation both lead to _____________ that produces engorgement of the erectile tissues.
a. sympathetic activity
b. hypothalamic activity
c. increased cerebellar activity
d. parasympathetic activity
e. testosterone secretion
Answer:
D. Parasympathetic activity
Explanation:
The parasympathic system is part of the Autonomous Nervous System. They have two types colinergic receptors: muscarinic receptors M1, M2, M3 and M4 and nicotinic receptors. Through M3 receptors, the parasympathetic effect in the male sex organ is erection.
Two kinds of neuroglia that insulate axons and dendrites are:
a. Schwann cells and satellite cells
b. microglia and oligodendrites
c. microglia and Schwann cells
d. oligodendrites and Schwann cells
Answer:
The correct answer is option D- oligodendrites and Schwann cells.
Explanation:
Neuroglia or glial cells are the cells in the nervous system which support, protect and maintain the neurons. These neuroglia cells protect the neurons as they insulate the axons and dendrite by forming a sheath around the neurons called the 'myelin sheath".
Two different types of glial cells form this myelin sheath in CNS and PNS: Schwann cells in PNS while oligodendrocytes in CNS. These myelin sheaths provide insulation as they are formed by the spiral wrapping of the plasma membrane which is made up of hydrophobic molecule.
Thus, option D- oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are the correct answer.
d. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
Further explanation
Oligodendrocytes can be said to have a function similar to Schwann cells that can be found in the peripheral nervous system.
Neuroglia are the cells most commonly found in the nervous system. These cells do not play a direct role in information processing and transmission and function to support the needs of neuron cells.
Microglia are a type of glial cell that is part of the immune system for the central nervous system. Microglia are small cells that act as phagocytes, cleaning components that can threaten the nervous system.
Oligodendrocytes are cells that play a role in forming the myelin sheath for the central nervous system. These oligodendrocytes can be said to have a function similar to Schwann cells found in the peripheral nervous system.
Astrocytes
"Astrocytes" comes from two words "Astro" which means stars and "sit" which means cell. As the name implies, erythrocytes are glia cells that have a star-like shape. Astrocytes are the most numerous cells in the central nervous system. This cell has several important functions, namely:
Bringing together neurons Repair of brain injury Play a role in neurotransmitter activityThere are two types of astrocytes
Protoplasmic astrocytes, more commonly found in the substance grise. These cells have bulges from the cytoplasm that spread from the entire cell surface. Sometimes this cytoplasmic expansion ends in small blood vessels to form "perivascular feet". Astrocyte Fibrosa, commonly found in the substance of alba. The difference with protoplasmic astrocytes can be seen from the cytoplasmic protrusion that is longer and straighter. Inside the bulge can also be found a picture of the filament.
Ependymal Cell
Ependymal cells line the interior of the fluid-filled cavity in the CNS. Ependymal cells are cells that have cilia, the movement of these cilia play a role in flowing cerebrospinal fluid throughout the ventricles of the brain.
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Class: College
Subject: Medicine
Keywords: neuron, neuroglia, cell
Which of these does NOT stimulate aldosterone production?
A. high plasma Na+
B. high plasma K+
C. Angiotensin II
D. high plasma He+
Answer:
(A). high plasma Na+.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, synthesized by adrenal gland. It plays role in homeostatic regulation of sodium ions, potassium ions and blood pressure.
Aldosterone is responsible for increase reabsorption of sodium ions (Na⁺) and secretion of potassium ions (K⁺). Angiotensin II is a hormone that stimulates production of aldosterone
Low Na⁺ level, High plasma K⁺ level, angiotensin II, and high plasma H⁺ stimulates production of aldosterone from cortex of adrenal gland.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
After assessing a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder, a nurse anticipates that he had a stroke in the right cerebral hemisphere. Which finding supports the nurse's anticipation?Slurring of speech Right-sided weakness Left-sided facial droop Loss of sensation of right hand Difficulty breathing
Answer:
The finding that suggests to the nurse that the lesion is in the right cerebral hemisphere is the Left-sided facial droop
Explanation:
At the level of the spinal bulb there is a point that is known as the decussation of the pyramid, where 80% of the axons that come from the right side of the brain intersect to the left side, and those that come from the left side, intersect to the right side, so the movements of one side of the body are controlled by the opposite side of the brain.
The motor cortex is the ___________ gyrus of the cerebral cortex; the sensory cortex is the _________ gyrus.
Answer:
The motor cortex is the pre central gyrus of the cerebral cortex and the sensory cortex is the post central gyrus.
As, the pre motor cortex appears in the selection of motor plans for the voluntary movements, on the other hand the primary motor cortex is in the execution of these voluntary movements. Pre motor cortex neurons signal are used for the preparation for the movement.
The motor cortex, situated in the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, is responsible for movement control. The sensory cortex, located in the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, is responsible for processing and perceiving various sensory information.
Explanation:The motor cortex is the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex. It is responsible for planning and executing movements. Walter Penfield, a neurosurgeon mapped the motor cortex's functional regions by electrically stimulating the cerebral cortex. He verified that different areas of the precentral gyrus were associated with various muscle movements.
The sensory cortex, on the other hand, is the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, playing a crucial role in processing sensory information. It includes areas that process somatosensory, visual, auditory, and gustatory senses. The sensory cortex allows us to consciously perceive these different sensory modalities.
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Testicular Sertoli cells function in all of the following ways EXCEPT that they do not:
a. secrete Mullerian inhibiting factor
b. secrete progesterone binding protein
c. coordinate spermiogenesis
d. support meiosis
e. serve as the blood-testes barrier
Answer: b. secrete progesterone binding protein
Explanation:
Sertoli cells regulate spermatogenesis and perform various functions in sperm production. Sertoli cells have the function of controlling the maturation and migration of germ cells; are involved in protein and steroid synthesis; phagocyte degenerating germ cells as well as residual cytoplasmic bodies left by adult spermatids in spermatogenesis; form the blood-testicular barrier. Sertoli cells secrete the antimüllerian hormone (antimüllerian hormone - AMH), a glycoprotein from the growth factor family, which suppresses the development of the Müller ducts, precursors of the female reproductive tract. Among the various substances produced by Sertoli cells, the protein binding to androgen-binding protein (ABP), the activin and inhibin.
Sertoli cells in the testes perform multiple functions related to sperm development and maturation, but they do not secrete progesterone binding protein.
Explanation:Testicular Sertoli cells play a fundamental role in the development and maturation of sperm, a process known as spermatogenesis. They exhibit numerous functions, including the secretion of the Mullerian inhibiting factor which suppresses the development of female reproductive structures, the coordination of spermiogenesis (the final stage of spermatogenesis), supporting meiosis (the process that leads to the formation of sperm), and serving as the blood-testes barrier which prevents passage of certain substances between the bloodstream and testicular tissue.
However, the function that Sertoli cells do not undertake according to the options provided is b. secrete progesterone binding protein. Progesterone binding protein is involved in female reproductive physiology, but it is not a role carried out by the testicular Sertoli cells.
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Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is present only in Chordates.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is NOT present only in Chordates.
Primary sensory afferents never cross the midline:
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is option A- true.
Explanation:
Primary sensory afferentS are a part of the somatosensory neuron pathway which transmits the neurons from the stimulus to the CNS. These neurons are divided into three types: primary, secondary and tertiary afferent neurons.
The primary neurons are the neurons which transmit the stimulus generated impulse form the organ to dorsal root ganglion where they transmit the signals to the secondary neurons. These secondary neurons decussate at the midline medulla through medial lemniscus.
Since it is the secondary neurons which decussate at midline, therefore, the option A- true is the correct answer.
Explain what the activities of ion channels might be if the threshold for both RP and AP were the same
Answer and Explanation:
the threshold potential of neuron is greater than resting potential if both RP and AP will become same then there will be no transmission of ions and no electric signal will be generated so no message will be transmitted.if RP and AP will be same then the K(+) channel and Na(+) channel open at the same time and there will be no formation of voltage gradient and so no message will be transmitted.in case of sodium potassium pump if RP and AP are equal then it will always be open and no formation of concentration gradient it may cause sever pathological damage due the long opening of the channelWhy is the pineal gland sometimes called the timekeeper of the body?
a. It uses information regarding changing light levels to adjust its output of the hormone, melatonin.
b. Melatonin levels increase during the night and decrease during the day, regulating the body's sleep cycle.
c. Melatonin levels increase during the night and decrease during the day, regulating the body's internal clock.
d. All of the above contribute to the pinal gland being called the body's timekeeper.
Answer:
The correct option is d. All of the above contribute to the pinal gland being called the body's timekeeper.
Explanation:
The pineal gland is a reddish-grey pine-cone shape gland present in the brain. It is responsible for the production of melatonin. The melatonin is a hormone which controls the body's sleep cycle and the circadian rhythm.
The melatonin production is stimulated by darkness. Therefore, the melatonin levels are low during the days and increases at night. This helps in regulating the body's sleep cycle and the circadian rhythm.
Thus, the pineal gland is referred to as the body's timekeeper.
The pineal gland is called the body's 'timekeeper' due to its role in regulating melatonin levels based on light levels, thereby controlling the body's internal clock and sleep cycle.
Explanation:The pineal gland is often referred to as the body's 'timekeeper' due to its role in regulating various biological processes related to time. This small, pinecone-shaped gland is primarily responsible for the production of the hormone melatonin. Melatonin levels typically increase during the night and decrease during the day, which in turn regulates our internal clock and sleep cycle.
The pineal gland adjusts its output of melatonin using information about the changing light levels in the environment. Therefore, all the options given - (a), (b), and (c) - contribute to why the pineal gland is called the body's 'timekeeper'.
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Depending on your field choice, discuss one nursing theory and identify the effect the implications of this theory could have on nursing administration, management, or education.
Answer:
There have been great nursing theorists and nursing theories throughout history, and all of them, have played a major role in developing the profession. However, there is one in particular that had a very big impact, as it led the nursing profession to view patients, not as simple organisms with an ailment that needed to be treated, and where nurses played a very small part, but rather, transformed the vision into a whole, something much bigger, and suddenly, the role of the nurse jumped into the forefront. This theory, is Callista Roy´s Adaptation Model.
The Adaptation Model of Roy, takes a human being, or a group of beings, as a system of adaptation, a whole that is influenced by several factors, and his/her, or their, response to a stimuli, which affects the whole, creates a response from all the factors within the person, or group. In some cases, the responses are adaptative, but in others, the balance is damaged. Roy was one of the first nursing theorists to realize that the human being was composed of interconnected factors: physical-physiological, the self-concept, the role function and the interdependence. She also saw that all systems receive stimulus, and these stimuli will activate one, two, or several of the modes. This generates a response. And because people are always looking to adapt to their environment, they will produce responses to achieve this goal. However, these responses may sometimes be inefficient, inadequate, or simply wrong.
In all aspects of nursing, this theory plays a role because it leads the nurse to realize her own job is not simply to deal with a physical-physiological aspect of care; she is also in charge of organizing the resources and tools that will be needed to reinforce, ensure, or correct, adaptive, or maladaptive, behaviors in patients and their social groups. It also leads students to understand patients in a different way, and see that the work of a nurse is vital to re-establish balance in an adaptive system through nursing care plans and programs that seek to return balance to not just one, but all the interconnected modes.
Which of the following characteristics helps to define a hominin?
A-long upper arms
B-large brain size
C-large molar teeth
D-arboreal quadrupedalism
Answer:
The correct answer is option B-large brain size.
Explanation:
Hominins are the living being which is a type or tribe of a group of an organism called primates. These primates are also called hominids.
Hominin represents the living group of the organism which shows three important characteristics:
1. Bipedalism: the ability to walk on two legs.
2. Large cranial size: large brain capacity (1500 cc) of Homo sapiens.
3. Reduced canine size: reduced size of teeth.
The only living hominin is "humans".
Thus, option B-large brain size is the correct answer.
A distinguishing feature of hominins, including humans and related extinct species, is a larger brain size compared to other primates. This characteristic is associated with advanced cognitive abilities. Therefore, the correct answer would be B
Explanation:A characteristic that is crucial in defining a hominin is B-large brain size. Hominins, the group of primates that includes humans and our closest extinct relatives, are distinguished particularly by brain size, which is significantly larger compared to non-hominin primates.
This large brain size is associated with complex cognitive skills, such as more developed language abilities and tool use. While the other alternatives (A, C, and D) can be found in many primate species, large brain size is especially characteristic of hominins.
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An area in the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of which of the following tissue types?
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscle tissue
d) Nervous tissue
Answer:
The answer is A: Epithelial tissue.
Explanation:
The epithelial tissue is the tissue that is mostly exposed to the external environment. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, it is a type of epithelial tissue, covering large spaces of the body. It consists mostly of dense accumulations of cells attached to each other that allow them to communicate with each other.
An area of the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of epithelial tissue, which protects the body, secretes substances, and absorbs nutrients.
An area of the body that is exposed to the external environment would likely be composed of epithelial tissue. This type of tissue includes sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, line internal cavities and passageways, and form certain glands. The primary functions of epithelial tissue are to protect the body from external elements, to secrete substances, and to absorb nutrients. The tissues that are not primarily exposed to the external environment are connective tissue, which provides support and integrates parts of the body; muscle tissue, which allows for movement; and nervous tissue, which propagates electrochemical signals for communication. To directly answer the question, the tissue type that would compose an area exposed to the external environment is (a) Epithelial tissue.
Describe the role of immune modulators. What is the difference between immune modulators and immune suppressants?
Answer:
Immune modulators are the chemical agent that alters the immune system by stimulation or inhibition of the white blood cell activity.
Explanation:
A chemical agent that alters the immune response known as immune modulators. Immune modulators can stimulate or inhibit white cell activity or immune response, It is generally suggested in the poor immune systems because of disease like AIDS or rheumatoid arthritis.
The immune-suppressants use in the case of organ transplant to inhibit the white cell activity because it is a chemical agent that inhibits the white cell activity or immune response.
Thus, the immune suppressants are the agent that only inhibit the immune response whereas the immune modulator can stimulate or inhibit the immune response.
Protection against illegal searches and seizures is specified by
a. the fourth amendment
b. the Civil Rights Act
c. the Declaration of Independence.
d. none of the above.
Answer:
A. The Fourth Amendment
Explanation:
The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects people's rights to be secure in their "persons, houses, papers, and effects", meaning that the government can not do searches and seizures to people's properties or belongings unless those searches and seizures are deemed reasonable under the law or legal and follow certain conditions. This Amendment was designed to protect people's privacy and to limit the government power so they can not act at the expense of citizen's rights.
There are neurotransmitters that can be both excitatory and inhibitory. Explain how this is possible.
Answer:
The answer to the question: There are neurotransmitters that can be both excitatory and inhibitory. Explain how this is possible, would be, Yes, there are some neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and dopamine, who have both an excitatory and inhibitory effect in other neurons and in cells, and this happens because of the type of receptors they bind to, and the type of cell where they bind.
Explanation:
Neurotransmitters are the messengers, or communication system that the nervous system in general has with itself and with other systems. There are several types of these, and some work both as neurotransmitters and as hormones as well. How they act, where they act, and what kind of response they elicit, depends entirely on the receptors to which they bind, when they are released by a pre-synaptic neuron. Most neurotransmitters are either excitatory, or inhibitory, and some are known as neuromodulators. However, there are two types known today that work as both excitatory and inhibitory: dopamine and acetylcholine. How can either of these act as each of these? Depends on the receptors present on the post-synaptic neuron, or cell, and depends on the type of cell as well. As soon as these two bind to their appropriate receptors, in a specific kind of cell, they will produce the specific response from the cell, either starting an action potential, ir inhibiting it from happening.
The purpose of vagotomy when doing a gastric resection is to:
A. produce gastric atony.
B. decrease gastric acid hypersecretion.
C. increase gastrin formation to neutralize hydrochloric acid.
D. decrease midline periodic pain.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Vagotomy is a medical procedure which is used to decrease the gastric secretion in the stomach by denervating the parental cell that produces acid.
This condition is useful in case pf peptic ulcers. It is also used to eliminate or reduce the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux in the patients who has already suffered from this.
In this operation the vagus nerve is cut down to reduce the rate of gastric secretion.
Thus, the correct answer is option B
What are the 7 bones that make up the orbit?
Answer:
The orbit is the socket or cavity of the skull in which the eye and its appendages are located. This bony socket is made up of 7 different bones. The seven bones are as follows-
Frontal bone : the bone located in front of the skull in that forms eye socket.
Zygomatic bone : it is cheekbone which articulates with the maxilla, sphenoid bone, and frontal bone.
Maxillary bone : The 2 maxillary bones are joined together at the intermaxillary suture, creating the anterior nasal spine.
Sphenoid bone : is an unpaired bone of the neurocranium.
Ethmoid bone : is a bone in the skull that distinguishes the nasal cavity and the brain. It is situated at the roof of the nasal cavity.
Palatine bone : These are 2 irregular bones of the nasal cavity.
Lacrimal bone: a small bone forming part of the eye socket.
What is Peripheral Artery Disease?
Answer:
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD), also known as Peripheral Arterial Disease is defined as a dicrease in blood flow towards the limbs, especially lower limbs, due to an atherosclerotical event that hinders the normal passage of blood through the arteries to these regions.
There is one particular cause for this disease, and the most common of them, and it is the formation of fat plaques, known as atheromas, which adhere to the walls of the arteries, preventing correct blood flow. Although many times asymptomatic in its initial stages, it can develop into a very serious condition in patients.
Symptoms usually come in the form of pain in the affected region, especially during exercise, known as claudication, and which is releaved once the person lays down to rest. There are other symptoms like leg weakness, numbness in the region affected, tingling in the hip where the atheroma has settled, among others.
Usually this condition is treated with diet, exercise and some medication, but it can lead up to surgery, when the affection is too great.
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) is a slow-progressing circulatory condition, categorized as a form of arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis. It's characterized by a buildup of plaque in the vessels, making it hard for arteries to oxygenate cells. The treatment options include lifestyle changes, medication, and procedures like angioplasty, stent insertion, or coronary bypass.
Explanation:Peripheral Artery Disease, often referred to as PAD, is a circulatory condition where narrowed blood vessels reduce blood flow to the limbs. It's a form of Arteriosclerosis - a generalized loss of compliance or 'hardening of the arteries', and Atherosclerosis - a specific type of arteriosclerosis involving the build-up of plaque in the walls of the vessels.
The disease progresses slowly and could begin in children; visible as fatty 'streaks' in the vessels. Risk factors include smoking, family history, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, high alcohol consumption, lack of exercise, stress, and hyperlipidemia. The restriction of the vasa vasorum to the outer layers of arteries makes arterial diseases more common than venous diseases, as its location makes it more difficult to nourish the cells of the arteries and remove waste products.
Treatment options may include medication, changes to diet and exercise, angioplasty with a balloon catheter, insertion of a stent, and coronary bypass procedures. Untreated cases can eventually restrict the flow of blood to tissues and result in ischemia, leading to the cells receiving insufficient amounts of oxygen, resulting in hypoxia and potential tissue death.
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What is the antibody involved in allergic responses?
Answer:
The correct answer is immunoglobulin E (IgE).
Explanation:
Immunoglobulin E are the antibodies that produced by the immune system in response of allergens. These antibodies travels to cells that cause allergic reaction by releasing chemicals. Allergic response generally takes place in nose, chest ear and skin and other.
IgE can be specific for one type of allergen or more than one type of allergens based on the individual immune response and different type of antibodies they produce.
Thus, the correct answer is immunoglobulin E.