The series of physical changes in which a child’s body matures and develops the ability to sexually reproduce is called?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: puberty

Explanation:

Answer 2
Final answer:

Puberty is the period of physical changes when a child's body matures into an adult body capable of sexual reproduction. It starts with the release of hormones from the brain and results in the development of both primary and secondary sex characteristics.

Explanation:

The series of physical changes in which a child’s body matures and develops the ability to sexually reproduce is called puberty. During this life stage, the body undergoes significant growth and maturation, preparing for reproductive capabilities. Puberty begins with a hormonal chain reaction starting in the brain, with the hypothalamus releasing gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). This, in turn, triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), stimulating the gonads to produce the sex hormones testosterone and estrogen. These hormones are crucial for the development of primary and secondary sex characteristics, including reproductive organs and features like facial hair or breast development.

Boys generally begin puberty around age 12 and complete it by about age 18. In girls, puberty can start earlier, and it includes events like menarche, the onset of menstrual periods. While the sequence of changes during puberty is predictable, the timing and pace can vary greatly among individuals. Adolescence covers an even broader range of changes, including psychological and social development alongside the physical changes of puberty.


Related Questions

What best describes an act of self-management? taking positive risks that benefit one’s overall health monitoring negative behavior through the use of strong social networks practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco

Answers

Answer:

Reducing negative influences and risk, practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco

Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk. Therefore option C is correct.

Self-management involves proactively taking charge of one's well-being and making informed choices to maintain and enhance their health.

Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk, best encapsulates this concept. This approach encompasses actions like engaging in regular exercise, maintaining a balanced diet, managing stress, and avoiding harmful habits.

It involves conscious decisions to promote physical, emotional, and mental health while minimizing risks that could compromise well-being.

This proactive stance empowers individuals to lead healthier lives, displaying a combination of awareness, responsibility, and action towards their own health and wellness.

Therefore option C is correct.

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How much exercise should teens do daily

Answers

Answer:

At least 60 mins

Explanation:

Doctors recommend that teens age 13 to 18 get at least one hour of moderate to vigorous physical activity most days of the week. The minimum amount should be 30 minutes three times a week. Not all teens meet the ideal amount, but if your teen can get 30 to 60 minutes a day three or four days a week

What about their job sounds appealing to you and what would you enjoy about this job?

Answers

Answer:

Hi, please give us the background of this question so we know what job you're referring to.

Explanation:

Why should the DXA be completed before the brachytherapy?

Answers

Explanation:

Brachytherapy is a type of cancer radiation therapy/ treatment which involves the placement of radioactive material within specific regions of the body. This maybe utilized to deliver more specific cancer treatments in affected areas. Available within higher doses in comparison to whole body radiation treatments.

Bone density tests called DEXA (dual energy x-ray) scans measure the bones density by focusing on specific regions namely the spine and hip bones This diagnoses and  can even determine a person's risk of developing developing osteoporosis which is a condition in which the bones are weakened and fragile

The test uses small doses of ionizing radiation (X-rays) to provide internal scans.

DXAs are also used prior to cancer treatment in order to potentially diagnose cancer present in the bone and to monitor bone health throughout treatment uses a very small dose of ionizing radiation to produce pictures of the inside of the body (usually the lower (or lumbar) spine and hips) to measure bone loss.

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Final answer:

DXA, which measures bone density, should be completed before brachytherapy to evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This step aids in developing a safe and effective treatment plan.

Explanation:

The DXA (Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry) should be completed before brachytherapy because DXA is used for bone density measurement. Brachytherapy, on the other hand, is a type of radiotherapy where a sealed radiation source is placed inside or next to the area requiring treatment. Before implementing brachytherapy, especially when the pelvic area or prostate is involved, a DXA scan is necessary to measure the bone density and evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This precautionary measure is essential for developing an effective and safe treatment plan.

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Which term defines a person one sees occasionally or only knows casually?
stranger
acquaintance
peer
friend

Answers

Answer:

acquaintance

Explanation:

you don't know a stranger at all, and you know a friend really well

so probably acuantainance

List some of the most common problems for which people go to a doctor when seeking medical advice and an examination

Answers

Answer:

colds/Viruses

the flu

allergies

gas buildup

major heartburn

addiction

Why do red meats have a high nutritional value?

Answers

red meats have high nutritional because they have lots of proteins including iron, b12, zinc and other nutrients.

What are environmental communication barriers?

Answers

Answer:

Time, place, space, climate and noise are all examples of environmental communication barriers.

Explanation:

They are things that may interfere with the message(s) that is/are trying to be sent.

Environmental communication barriers are obstacles that hinder effective communication between individuals or groups due to factors in the physical or natural surroundings.

What are Environmental communication barriers?

Environmental communication barriers refer to obstacles that prevent effective communication in the context of the natural environment. These barriers can include physical barriers such as noise, distance, or visual obstructions, as well as cultural or linguistic barriers that can arise when communicating with people from different backgrounds or communities.

For instance, when communicating about environmental issues, language barriers can be a major obstacle in conveying messages to non-native speakers or communities with a different dialect. Similarly, cultural differences in how people understand and respond to environmental concerns can pose challenges in communication and collaboration.

Other environmental communication barriers can arise from the use of technical language, the absence of clear and concise messaging, or the lack of access to information or communication technologies. Addressing these barriers can require creative solutions such as using visual aids or translation services, building trust and understanding through community engagement, or simplifying complex technical information to make it more accessible to diverse audiences.

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All of an organisms genetic information can be obtained within the chromosomes in a single cell almost every kind of cell in an organism has the same number of chromosomes for example most human cells have each 46 chromosomes which is a type of cell that contains 23 chromosomes in a human?

Answers

Answer:

Genetic information are derived from the chromosome of a single cell.

Explanation:

Each organism has a particular number of chromosome in their cell. Almost every kind of organism has the similar number of chromosomes, as in human. Human cells have 46 chromosomes which have 23 pairs, known as homologous pairs.

Human sperms have haploids i.e. one homologous  chromosome for each pair. When the process of sperm fusion takes place the genetic components of the sperm unite themselves into a single set of diploid chromosomes.

The two chromosomes of mother and father in a pair are quite similar and carry same genetic information. However the gene types are different.

Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called _____.

Answers

Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called neutrons
Final answer:

Subatomic particles that do not have any charge are known as neutrons and neutrinos. Neutrons are part of an atom's nucleus and neutrinos are elementary particles similar to electrons but lack charge.

Explanation:

Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called neutrons. Neutrons are elementary particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They carry no electrical charge, unlike protons, which carry a positive charge, and electrons, which carry a negative charge. For example, an atom of helium contains two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons. The protons and electrons each carry opposite charges that balance each other out, leaving the neutral neutrons to add mass to the nucleus without affecting the atom's total charge.

Another particle that does not have charge is the neutrino. Neutrinos are subatomic particles that are very similar to electrons but do not carry electric charge. They are incredibly small and rarely interact with other particles, hence they are challenging to detect.

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Points
How could you best help people with eating disorders?

Answers

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

You can help my trying to figure out what caused the eating disorder. Trying to figure out if there is anything you can do to help basically try and be their new form of comfort

What is the name of the division of U.S. Public Health Services which is in charge of
investigation and control of various diseases?
a. NCCLS
b. OSHA
c. CDC
d. ASCP

Answers

cdc

stands for center of disease control

Final answer:

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the division of the U.S. Public Health Services in charge of investigating and controlling various diseases.

Explanation:

The division of U.S. Public Health Services that is responsible for the investigation and control of various diseases is the CDC, or the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

This agency is a significant entity in monitoring public health in the United States. It conducts research, provides education, and establishes policies regarding health issues.

For example, during a disease outbreak, the CDC would take a lead role in identifying the disease, providing guidance to health professionals and the public, and coordinating efforts to control its spread.

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how can you most effectively change your body fat percentage?​

Answers

Answer:

Going onto a diet plan and excising daily for a certain amount of time each day for so and so days

Explanation:

Exam Attempt 2
14. Name the best storage location for Chemicals:
OA. Next to the dishwashing station in the kitchen area
OB.In a non-food storage closet on the bottom shelf
OC. In your establishment's public restroom
OD. In a non-food storage closet on the top shelf
Submit Answer

Answers

Answer: The correct answer is OD, in a non-food storage closet on the top shelf.

Explanation:

Chemicals, of any kind, should be stored away from any food preparation stations, away from silverware and dishes, and away from the kitchen area. The chemicals need to be out of reach of children and put on a high shelf. Chemicals will need their own storage container or closet. All chemicals need to be labeled correctly and put away after each use.  The phone numbers for poison control need to be listed nearby and in view of employees.

Answer:

SHOULD NOT BE ON TOP,in case you knock it over

Explanation:

Please Help ASAP!!

1. Which of the following Child Care Center policies would be most effective in helping infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis? (1 point)

a. Follow a new routine every day so the children do not become bored.

b. Rotate teachers among the children frequently to stimulate interest in learning.

c. Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.

d. Make sure each child is able to spend several hours alone each day.


2. Solitary play is characteristic of __________ year-old children. (1 point)

a. 2- to 2½-

b. 2½- to 3½-

c. 3½- to 4½-

d.4½- to 5½-


3. Teaching infants and toddlers requires more __________ than teaching preschoolers and school aged children. (1 point)

a. emotional investment

b. physical care

c. specialized training

d. lesson planning


4. Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech? (1 point)

a. “More.”

b. “No eat.”

c. “Daddy wants lunch.”

d. “I don't want that.”


5. Which of the following statements best describes the role of assessment in teaching infants and toddlers? (1 point)

a. Assessment is not an appropriate activity for teaching infants and toddlers.

b. Initial screenings with parents represent the full extent of assessment for infants and toddlers.

c. There is no reliable way to access the cognitive development of infants and toddlers.

d. Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.


6. Children typically speak their first words between __________ months of age. (1 point)

a. 6 and 12

b. 12 and 18

c. 24 and 30

d. 30 and 36


7. Which of the following activities is typical of the cognitive development levels of infants and toddlers? (1 point)

a. pretending that a black is a truck

b. repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens

c. cooperating with peers to build a block tower

d. counting the total number of blocks in a tower


8. Right- or left handedness typically emerges by age (1 point)

a. one.

b. two.

c. three.

d. four.


9. __________ are typically associated with the reflexive phrase of motor development. (1 point)

a. Infants

b. Toddlers

c. Preschool-age children

d. Primary-age children


10. One-year-old Sam is able to stand and speak he is in the __________ phrase of motor development. (1 point)

a. reflective

b. rudimentary

c. fundamental

d. specialized

Answers

Answer:

I got a HORRIBLE SCORE. So people can know the correct answer....

Explanation:

1. C - Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.

2. A - 2- to 2½-

3. B - Physical Care

4. B - "No Eat"

5. D - Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.

6. B - 12 and 18

7. B - repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens

8. C - three

9. A - Infants

10. B - rudimentary

Final answer:

In order to help infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis, the most effective Child Care Center policy would be to establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children. Solitary play is characteristic of 2½- to 3½-year-old children. Teaching infants and toddlers requires more specialized training than teaching preschoolers and school-aged children.

Explanation:

1. Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.



This policy would be most effective in helping infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis. By having the same teachers consistently care for the children, they can develop a sense of trust and familiarity, which is important for their emotional well-being.

2. 2½- to 3½-year-old children



Solitary play is characteristic of children in this age range. They prefer to play alone and may engage in activities like exploring objects, building with blocks, or drawing without actively seeking interaction with others.

3. specialized training



Teaching infants and toddlers requires more specialized training than teaching preschoolers and school-aged children. Because early childhood development is critical, educators need to understand the unique needs and development of infants and toddlers to provide appropriate care and support.

4. 'No eat.'



This is an example of telegraphic speech. Telegraphic speech refers to the use of short, simple phrases or sentences that omit nonessential words. In this example, the words 'no' and 'eat' convey the message without including additional words like 'I' or 'want.'

5. Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.



Assessment in teaching infants and toddlers can be done by recording their developmental milestones. These milestones include physical, cognitive, and social-emotional achievements, such as sitting up, babbling, and imitating gestures. Regularly monitoring and documenting these milestones can provide valuable information about a child's progress and help identify any areas that may need additional support.

6. 12 and 18



Children typically speak their first words between 12 and 18 months of age. This is an important milestone in language development and signifies the beginning of expressive language skills.

7. repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens



This activity is typical of the cognitive development levels of infants and toddlers. During this stage, they are curious about cause and effect, so repeating actions like dropping a block allows them to observe and learn about the consequences of their actions.

8. Two



Right- or left-handedness typically emerges by age two. At this age, children begin to show a preference for using one hand over the other when engaging in fine motor activities like drawing or eating.

9. Infants



Infants are typically associated with the reflexive phase of motor development. During this phase, their motor movements are automatic and reflexive, such as grasping objects or sucking on a bottle.

10. fundamental



One-year-old Sam, who is able to stand and speak, is in the fundamental phase of motor development. This phase marks the development of foundational motor skills like sitting, standing, and walking.

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Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?
A. Seminiferous tubules
B.Vas deferens
C. Epididymis
D. Bartholin’s glands

Answers

Answer: i believe its the Vas deferens

What is outbreak at Watersedge?

Answers

Answer: A public health discovery game

Explanation:

Final answer:

The query seems to explore the reasons behind and connections between certain events that could lead to public health concerns, referencing environmental damage and infrastructure failure. Confirming any links requires a multidisciplinary approach, incorporating historical, environmental, and health studies.

Explanation:

The question regarding 'Outbreak at Watersedge' appears to refer to a hypothetical scenario possibly linked to historical events or environmental studies, as the provided excerpts do not directly relate to a specific outbreak named 'Outbreak at Watersedge'. However, based on the context given, examining potential causes and links between described scenarios can include factors such as environmental damage, infrastructure failure, and public health concerns. For instance, the breakage of moorings and water pipes, and the displacement of a piling due to a north mooring line could lead to water contamination, which is a common precursor to public health crises. The historical note on the Winnebago Outbreak of 1827 suggests that investigating historical records and environmental impacts can offer insights into possible causes and connections between seemingly disparate events. Confirming suspected links would involve interdisciplinary approaches, combining historical research, environmental science, and public health studies to trace the origins and impacts of such events.

Select the correct answer.
In the preparation stage, individuals are aware of the problem, but they still believe the positive aspects outweigh the negative aspects. They are
beginning to think about changing, but they have made no commitment to change.​

Answers

It’s B wallah im not Cappin on foenem

What does the sympathetic nervous system control?

a) the release of endorphins
b) the secretion of dopamine
c) the mind-body connection
d) the fight-or-flight response

Answers

D.) the fight-or-flight response.
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is a part of the larger autonomic nervous system (ANS) and works to regulate the body’s unconscious responses such as fight-or-flight and homeodynamic homeostasis.

Which activity is BEST for weight management?​

Answers

Answer:

240 to 300 calories doing light activity such as cleaning house or playing baseball or golf.

370 to 460 calories doing activity such as a brisk walk (3.5 mph), gardening, biking (5.5 mph), or dancing.

580 to 730 calories doing activity such as jogging at a pace of 9 minutes per mile, playing football, or swimming laps.

What is the primary role of communication in enhancing health?

Communication prevents a person from having cancer.
Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.
Communication ensures that a person will get great health care.
Communication prevents medical staff from misdiagnosing a condition.

Answers

Answer: Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.

Explanation:

This is the best option out of all of these choices. Communication is key for a healthcare plan because the individual wanting healthcare has to voice what they want and their needs.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Which body part should be lifted when clearing a person's airway during CPR?
A)arm
B)chest
C) shoulder
D)chin

Answers

the body part that would be lifted is the chin

Place one hand on the person's forehead and put the fingers of your other hand under the chin. Press down on the forehead and lift out the chin so that the mouth is slightly open.

Why does your heart stay in one place instead of bobbing around inside your chest?

Answers

Answer:

your chest cavity is what keeps your heart in one place

Explanation:

your heart is connected to your chest cavity .

Final answer:

The heart stays in place in the chest due to a combination of structures like the pericardium, sternum, rib cage, and the attachment of blood vessels. It is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood through rhythmic contractions, ensuring continuous blood circulation throughout the body.

Explanation:

The human heart is a vital muscular organ located behind the sternum, slightly to the left in the center of the chest. Despite what many believe, when you place your hand on your heart, it is not entirely on the left side but more centrally positioned. The heart is anchored securely in place within the chest by various structures. This includes the pericardium—a double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels, the sternum and rib cage that provide a protective enclosure, and the vascular structures and lungs that envelop it.

Furthermore, the heart itself is composed of specialized tissue -- the cardiac muscle. This muscle is responsible for the rhythmic contractions, known as your heartbeat, that pump blood throughout your body. These contractions move the blood by getting shorter and exerting force, which propels the blood through the cardiovascular system. This activity brings vital oxygen and nutrients to every cell and removes waste products from them.

Attached to the heart are large blood vessels that do not allow much movement, and additionally, there are ligament-like structures that secure the heart to the spinal column and other parts of the thoracic cavity. This combination of the cardiac muscle contractions and the stabilizing structures ensures that the heart does not 'bob around' inside the chest. Consequently, the heart remains securely in place, performing its essential function of continuously circulating blood throughout the body.

The type of movements made by the TMJ is

Answers

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) allows for movement of the mandible during speech and mastication. Two basic types of movement are performed by the joint and its associated muscles: a gliding movement and a rotational movement

4. Heartburn is caused by
a. seepage of gastric acid into the esophagus.
b. seepage of gastric acid into the cardiac muscle.
c. seepage of bile into the stomach.
d. seepage of salivary amylase into the stomach.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

Heartburn happens because stomach acid becomes backed up in the esophagus, which moves food from your mouth to your stomach.

The burning sensation is usually the result of stomach acid leaking up into the esophagus through a flaw in a valve known as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), which connects the esophagus and the stomach. When the LES doesn't tighten properly or becomes weakened, stomach acid can flow back into the esophagus, causing a burning feeling.

Heart burn is caused by A

The pattern by which our lives be measured is

Answers

Answer:

what god measured

Sorry but the question is not very direct, please specify what you are generally looking for, thank you :)

2 Points
Which of the following is not a risk associated with using legal drugs without
medical supervision?
A. Taking inappropriate or dangerous dose amounts,
O
B. Ignoring or not recognizing the side effects.
C. Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a
prescription
D. Not having a guarantee of purity or potency of the drug,
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

C. paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription

Explanation:

this will not happen with illegal prescription

The option that is not associated with the risk of using legal drugs without medical supervision is paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription. Thus, the correct option is C.

What is Medical Supervision?

Medical supervision may be defined as the process of regular coordination, direction, and inspection by a physician of an individual's exercise of delegation to deliver medical services to patients.

Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription may be considered an illegal activity that can not have any risk associated with using legal drugs without medical supervision.

Therefore, the correct option for this question is C.

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explain the relationship between the key terms in each of the following pairs

1. aggressive and assertive
2. self concept and self esteem
3. emotion and mental health

Answers

Final answer:

Aggressive and assertive denote types of behavior with the former being conflict-causing and the latter not. Self-concept and self-esteem both relate to one's view of themselves and usually, a positive self-concept results in high self-esteem. Lastly, emotions affect our mental health significantly, with persistent negative emotions potentially harming it.

Explanation:

The relationship between the key terms in each of the pairs is as follows:

Aggressive and Assertive: These terms represent different types of behavior. Assertive communication involves expressing your point of view in a clear, non-conflict-causing way, respecting yourself and others. However, Aggressive behavior tends to disregard the feelings and opinions of others and can often lead to conflict.Self Concept and Self Esteem: These are closely connected as they both relate to our perception of ourselves. Self-concept is a person's perception or image of their abilities and uniqueness. On the other hand, Self-esteem is a person's overall sense of their value or worth. A positive self-concept often leads to high self-esteem.Emotion and Mental Health: There is a strong relationship between these two terms. Emotions greatly influence our mental health. Frequent negative emotions can have a detrimental effect on our mental health, whereas positive emotions can enhance our mental well-being.

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Which of the following is not a
function of Public Health
organizations?
A. Treating patients.
B. Providing immunizations.
C. Keeping health statistics.
D. Working to prevent and control epidemics.

Answers

Hi !

Which of the following is not a

function of Public Health

organizations?

C. Keeping health statistics.

You go into a back bedroom at a party to pick up your coat, and find someone passed out on the floor laying on his side. you try to wake him up, but he doesn’t move. what do you do next?

Answers

Answer:

check to see if he is breathing

Explanation:

always make sure the person is breathing first. if not breathing begin CPR while dialing 911. if breathing and just unresponsive call 911

A person is said to be passed out if they might have taken any drugs or alcohol. If the person doesn't wake then one should check the breathing followed by CPR if needed, or should call EMS.

What is EMS?

EMS is the emergency medical service are paramedics that provide urgent medical treatment to patients. They are called in emergencies where the person needs to be hospitalized.

If a person is passed out then, one should pinch the skin causing him pain, and if they still don't wake then one should call EMS and not leave the person till the help arrives.

Therefore, in an emergency, EMS should be called.

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Charles Darwin believed that behaviors, such as emotional expressions associated with human rage, could be explained by natural selection. Which early psychologist would be most likely to agree with Darwin's assessment?a. William Jamesb. Edward B. Titchenerc. Wilhelm Wundtd. John B. Watsone. Ivan Pavlov in which of these substances is significant hydrogen bonding possible: methylene chloride (CH2Cl2), phosphine (PH3), chloramine (NH2Cl), acetone (CH3COCH3) ? 21. (4pts) Please answer in a complete sentence in Spanish. Te gusta jugar videojuegos? 22. (4pts) Please write your answer in a complete sentence in Spanish using the vocabulary from your course. List at least 2 activities from our course to answer the question.Qu te gusta hacer?23. (4pts) Answer the following question in a complete sentence in Spanish. List at least 2 activities from our course to answer the question. Qu no te gusta hacer?24. (4pts) Using your course vocabulary what are two ways to agree with someone in Spanish? Hint: These are the ways to say Me too and Me either in Spanish.25. (4pts) Answer the following question in a complete sentence in Spanish. Qu te gusta ms, esquiar o nadar? While there are a number of characteristics that vary between monotremes and marsupials, there is one characteristic that links them together. What is it?a. they both have nipples for suckingb. they both have a single opening for reproduction, excretion and defecationc. they both gave birth to underdeveloped youngd. they both have members that retain the primitive reptile-gait Nick wants to encourage his 6-year-old daughter, Anna, to help with family chores. He makes an outline of a rainbow with seven bands so that Anna can color in a band each time she does a chore. If she does seven chores in a week, coloring in the full rainbow, she gets $1. Nicks technique demonstrates which methods?a) habituation, positive punishment, and a fixed interval scheduleb) shaping, negative reinforcement, and a variable interval schedulec) chaining, negative punishment, and a variable ratio scheduled) a token economy, positive reinforcement, and a fixed ratio schedule Cold foods should be stored below what temperature write 3 to 4 sentences describing how the huntsman's motivations advance the plot in "Little Red Riding Hood" A corporate manager chafes under red tape and bureaucratic regulations until finally deciding to start a separate business. The apparent reward he seeks is the satisfaction of working with people. a satisfying way of life. community service. independence. Summer squash plants with the dominant allele C bear white fruit, whereas plants homozygous for the recessive allele c bear colored fruit. When the fruit is colored, the dominant allele G causes it to be yellow; in the absence of this allele (that is, with genotype gg), the fruit color is green. What are the phenotypes and proportions expected from intercrossing the progeny of CC GG and cc gg plants? Assume that the C and G genes assort independently. translate phrases algebraic expressions, half a number Fill in the blanks to make the statement true2t - t +4= 0Solving this equation will result in a [quadratic/linear] equation that[Can/cannot] be solved by factoring. Question 1 with 7 blanks DON DIEGO Hola, (1) . MARISSA Hola, seor. Cmo se (2) usted? DON DIEGO Yo me llamo Diego, y (3) ? MARISSA Yo me llamo Marissa. (4) . DON DIEGO (5) , seorita Marissa. MARISSA Nos (6) , don Diego. DON DIEGO Hasta (7) , seorita Marissa. Johnny is seven months old and is playing happily with toys in his room. His mom walks in the door, and he begins to smile and get excited at the sound of her voicePreoperationaltoddlerhoodpre-adolescencesensorimotor Discuss how cryptology is used on the Internet for e-business or e-commerce. Provide examples and types of cryptographic tools and techniques Who was third president Write in full the meaning of MLA and APA. Lakeside Manufacturing provided the following information for the month ended March 31:Sales Revenue$26,000Beginning Finished Goods Inventory8,000Ending Finished Goods Inventory13,500Cost of Goods Manufactured15,600Compute cost of goods available for sale. #43. find (e). also please explain it. Two planes , which are 2445 miles apart fly toward each other. Their speed differ by 65mph. If they pass each other in 3 hours , what is the speed of each? Which of these are functions of an entrepreneur?-offering value to consumers through products and services-contributing to the governments revenue in the form of taxes