Answer:
oral cavity (mouth), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine,
Explanation:
Digestion may be defined as the process of breakdown of large food particle into simpler substances with the help of digestive enzymes and juices.
The process of food breakdown starts from the mouth. The physical breakdown of food helps with the mastication of teeth. The salivary amylase breaks down carbohydrate into mouth. Food then passes down to the esophagus with the help of peristaltic movements. The food then enters in the stomach forms chyme with the help of mixing of food with gastric juice. Hydrochloric acid kills the harmful bacteria in the stomach. The food then passes into the small intestine ( duodenum, jejunum and ileum). The bile juice, pancreatic juice and various enzymes are present in the small intestine. The carbohydrates are breakdown into simple sugars, proteins into amino acid and fatty acid into simple fats. The maximum absorption and complete digestion occur in the small intestine. The excess material and waste product passes into the large intestine and excrete out from the body through rectum.
Food passage begins in the oral cavity with mastication and moves through the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, ending with expulsion through the anus. Along this pathway, various digestive processes involve the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food, leading to nutrient absorption and waste elimination.
Explanation:Complete Pathway of Food Through the Alimentary CanalThe alimentary canal, also known as the gastrointestinal (GI) tract or gut, is the continuous tube through which food travels and is processed in the body. The pathway for food begins at the oral cavity or mouth, where food enters and undergoes both mechanical and chemical digestion. Mastication, or the chewing action of the teeth, breaks down food into smaller particles which are mixed with saliva containing digestive enzymes. This forms a bolus which is then swallowed.
From the oral cavity, the ingested bolus passes to the pharynx and then through the esophagus via a wave-like motion known as peristalsis. The esophagus delivers the bolus to the stomach, where it is further broken down by stomach acid and enzymes. After the stomach, the partly digested food enters the small intestine, which is the primary site for nutrient absorption.
Once the absorption process in the small intestine is completed, the remaining waste products move on to the large intestine where water is absorbed and the waste is formed into feces. The waste then travels to the rectum and is finally expelled from the body via the anus. The accessory organs such as the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder contribute to digestion through the secretion of bile and other digestive enzymes that aid in the breakdown and absorption of nutrients.
What effect does the lack of pneumotaxic and stretch receptor neurons have on ventilation?
Answer and explanation :
there are many problem due to lack of pneumotaxic and stetch receptor neurons on ventilation
DUE TO LACK OF PNEUMOTAXIC CENTER :
pneumotaxic center is present in the nucleus which is used to transmit impulse to the inspiratory area which is not possible due to lack of pneumotaxic centerit controls the duration of filling of lungs it also control the medullary respiratory system which is not possible due to lack of thisDUE TO LACK OF STRETCH RECEPTOR :
The hearing breuer inflation reflex is generated by stretch receptor neuron which is not generated due to lack of stretch receptorwhen stretched these receptors send the inhibitory impulses through the vegus nerve to the DMG neuron which is not possible due to lack of this
Final answer:
The absence of pneumotaxic and stretch receptor neurons would disrupt the regulation of breathing rate and the ventilatory response to physical activity, affecting the body's ability to maintain homeostasis during rest and exercise.
Explanation:
The lack of pneumotaxic and stretch receptor neurons has a significant effect on ventilation. The pneumotaxic center, located in the pons, helps regulate the rate of breathing by inhibiting the activity of the neurons in the dorsal respiratory group. Stretch receptors in muscles, joints, and tendons, known as proprioceptors, provide a stimulus that can trigger the respiratory centers of the brain to adjust breathing during activities like exercise.
Without the pneumotaxic center, the body may lose the ability to properly regulate the rate of breathing, possibly leading to an erratic or inefficient breathing pattern. The absence of proprioceptive feedback from the stretch receptors could result in a diminished respiratory response to physical activity, thereby affecting the necessary increase in ventilation that generally corresponds with exercise. Overall, these deficiencies can impair the body's ability to maintain homeostasis during various states of physical activity and rest.
The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is the ________
a. mean arterial pressure
b. resistance to flow
c. pulse pressure
d. resting pressure
Answer:
The answer is A: mean arterial pressure.
Explanation:
The difference between systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure results in mean blood pressure. It is considered as the perfusion pressure of body tissues and organs. Its normal value must be between 60 or 80 mmHg to maintain a good perfusion. Below these values there is a risk that the tissues have ischemia.
What are the steps for endochondral ossification?
Answer:
Endochondral ossification can be defined as two essential processes by which the development of mammalian skeletal system takes place.
During this process the bone tissue of the body is created. Cartilage is present during the time of endochondral ossification.
There are five major steps involved in this process.
Bone Collar Formation Cavitation Periosteal Bud Invasion Diaphysis Elongation Epiphiseal OssificationFinal answer:
Endochondral ossification is the development of bone from hyaline cartilage, excluding the flat bones of the skull. It follows five steps, starting with mesenchymal cells differentiating into chondrocytes and culminating with the formation of secondary ossification centers, while maintaining cartilage at the growth plates and as articular cartilage.
Explanation:
Endochondral Ossification Steps
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondrocytes, which are the cells responsible for cartilage formation.The cartilage model develops, representing the shape of the future bone, and is surrounded by a membrane known as the perichondrium.As the process continues, blood vessels, or capillaries, penetrate the cartilage. The perichondrium transforms into the periosteum, and a periosteal collar is formed along with the primary ossification center in the shaft of the bone.Cartilage growth progresses, with chondrocytes and cartilage continuing to expand at the ends of the bone.Secondary ossification centers appear in the regions of the epiphyses, which will eventually become the ends of the bone. Throughout this phase, the cartilaginous growth plates remain intact, facilitating the elongation of the bone.At the conclusion of endochondral ossification, cartilage remains solely in two key areas: the epiphyseal (growth) plates and as articular cartilage, which is essential for joint function.
Think back to your most effective teaching session with a client. To what do you attribute this success? Why?
Answer:
paying attention to details, aware hearing, pacience
Explanation:
once i was providing information to a student (english class),i realized that the way he creates his ideas was very slow and trembling, when i asked him to read a piece of a paragraph i saw the same behaviour so i decifrated the problem was into reading word by word without conecting all of them with a constant pace until a coma or dot because we do interprate things holisticly and not individually so thanks of a pacient and responsive hearing i could saw his improvement in just one class!
What are the symptoms of undifferentiated connective tissue disease?
Symptoms of undifferentiated connective tissue disease:
- Low fever
- Hair loss
- Rashes
- Sores or swelling inside of your mouth
- Dry mouth
If you experience any of these symptoms, go to the hospital as soon as possible.
If work is constant, power increases as time increases.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Power may be defined as the rate of doing work with time. The S.I. unit of power is J/s or watt. The power is a scalar quantity as it has only magnitude and no direction.
The power can be calculated by the formula:
Power = work done/ time taken.
From the formula, it is clear that power is inversely proportional to the time taken by the body. Hence, if the work remains constant, power will decrease with time.
Thus, the answer is false.
Where does the diaphragm insert?
a. xiphoid process
b. coastal cartilages
c. lumbar vertebrae
d. central tendon
e. sternum
Answer:
Xiphoid process.
Explanation:
Xiphoid process is also known as metasternum. The seven ribs articulate with the sternum in the xiphoid process.
This xiphoid process is important for the insertion of diaphragm at its correct place. The excess pressure on the xiphoid process can cause the laceration of the diaphragm.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
The spleen filters lymph, whereas lymph nodes filter blood.
a. True
b. False
Spleen filter blood, lymph node filter lymph. Hence given statement is FALSE
Explanation:
An organ that is found in all vertebrates is spleen. The shape of spleen is same as that of the structure of a Larger Lymph node. A prime blood filter is spleen.
A spleen mainly takes off the older red blood cells and it also holds some blood as reserve which is more important in cases like hemorrhagic shock.
In the haemoglobin the globin part is degraded to amino acids. The heme part is converted into bilirubin which in return removed in the liver.
What is the path that sperm follow through the male reproductive tract?
a. epididymis, ejaculatory duct, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, urethra
b. seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
c. epididymis, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, ejaculatory duct, urethra
d. urethra, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules
e. urethra, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, epididymis
Answer:
The answer is B. Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vasdeferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra.
Explanation:
The process of ejaculation that runs along the sperm through the male reproductive tract begins in the epididymis, then through the vas deferens which is a smooth muscle that, through its contractions, drives the semen into the urethra. The sperm arrives first in the blister where the secretions of the seminal bladders are added, and then the seminal fluid is propelled through the ejaculatory ducts to the urethra, previously passing through the prostat where a milk fluid is added, thus forming semen
Symptoms for syphilis often disappear between stages leading patients to believe that they are not at risk for further damage.
a) True b) False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a bacterium. It is usually spread after people have unprotected sex (any kind of sex).
The first symptoms of syphilis include having open, wound like sores around the mouth and the genitals areas. They are usually pain free but very unpleasant and they tend to heal on their own. During a later stage of this disease they symptoms may become latent and even disappear for months or years. The no visible symptoms stage is very dangerous one, as the bacterium can damage the internal organs in the body, including the brain.
Syphilis is treated with antibiotics.
Which way does air flow when alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure?
a. into the lungs, called expiration
b. out of the lungs, called inspiration
c. into the lungs, called inspiration
d. out of the lungs, called expiration
Answer:c
Explanation:because the body will automatically react
To the air in your body
Final answer:
Air flows out of the lungs, called expiration when alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure because air moves from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.
Explanation:
When alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure, air flows out of the lungs, which is called expiration. This occurs during the pulmonary ventilation process, which includes inspiration (inhalation) and expiration (exhalation). In the case of expiration, the muscles of the thoracic cavity relax, causing a decrease in volume, which leads to an increase in alveolar pressure. As a result, the air is pushed out of the lungs because air moves from a region of higher pressure to a region of lower pressure.
The correct answer to the question is d. out of the lungs, called expiration.
Which cranial nerve does not carry motor commands to an eye muscle?
a. vagus nerve
b. abducens nerve
c. oculomotor nerve
d. trochlear nerve
Answer:
The answer is A vagus nerve
Explanation:
The vagus nerve despite being part of the twelve cranial nerves does not innervate any eye muscle.
What are myoepithelial cells? What is the function?
Answer:
each cell consits of a cell body from which 4to8 proccers and embrance the seceritary unit
An increase in blood viscosity will cause a increase in peripheral resistance.
a.True
b. False
Final answer:
An increase in blood viscosity increases the thickness of blood, making it flow less easily through blood vessels, which in turn increases peripheral resistance. The correct answer to the statement is 'True.'
Explanation:
An increase in blood viscosity will indeed cause an increase in peripheral resistance. This is because viscosity refers to the thickness or stickiness of a fluid, and blood is no exception. When blood viscosity increases, it flows less easily through the blood vessels. Just like sipping a milkshake through a straw would require more effort compared to sipping water, more effort (or higher pressure) is needed to pump thicker blood through the circulatory system.
Think of the circulatory system as a series of pipes: if the 'fluid' inside the pipes becomes thicker, it's naturally going to flow with more difficulty. This difficulty is what's referred to as resistance. Increased viscosity thus increases resistance and decreases flow. Therefore, the correct answer to the given statement would be:
a. True
Bile from the liver emulsifies _____________.
Answer:
Fat particles
Explanation:
The acids in the bile emulsifies globules of fat into microscopic droplets. This is of significance because the surface area of fat is made to increase, which allows it to become available for digestion by lipases (fat deteriorating enzymes).
What are Kupffer cells and their actions?
Answer:
Kupffer cells, also known as stellate macrophages due to their particular structure while viewed under a microscope, were first identified by scientist Karl Wilhelm von Kupffer, after whom the cells were named, in 1876.
These cells, whose origin is in the yolk sack during fetal development, later on move to the liver where they will stay and further differentiate into their mature versions.
These cells are part of the liver cells, and are found particularly on the walls of the sinusoids, where they perform their two most important tasks. First, these cells are part of the immune system, as they are essentially macrophages. However, their role is pretty unique, as they are responsible not just for phagocytosis of invading bacteria, and other pathogens, and initiating immune responses, but also, this cell plays a role in decomposing red blood cells who are dying, and taking up the hemoglobin from them to further break that into reusable globin, and the heme group, from which iron is further extracted to be re-used and also to create bilirrubin, a part of bile.
Finally, these cells have been found to be connected to hepatic cirrhosis, as in their process of detoxifying ethanol, they produce toxins that force the liver cells to produce collagen, and thus to become fibrous.
Which of the following would be an outcome for an individual receiving pain medication?
a. Patient states his pain is a 3-4 or less 30 minutes after pain medication is administered.
b. The nurse administers pain medication 30 minutes before beginning activities that could increase the patient's pain.
c. The patient will be encouraged to practice meditation to help reduce the pain.
d. The patient will be taught to ask for the pain medication before the pain becomes too severe.
The outcome for an individual receiving pain medication is that the patient will be encouraged to practice meditation to help reduce the pain.
What is Medication?This is defined as a drug which is used to diagnose, cure, treat, or prevent disease.
The outcome of a patient receiving pain medication will be to adequately use it in order to reduce the pain.
Read more about Medication here https://brainly.com/question/26254731
What are the organs of the upper respiratory system?
Answer:
The answer to the Question is:
Explanation:
The main ducts and structures of the upper respiratory tract are the nose, nasal cavity, mouth, throat (pharynx) and larynx. The respiratory system is covered by a mucous membrane that secretes mucus, which traps small particles such as pollen or smoke. Hair structures called cilia cover the mucous membrane and displace the particles trapped in the mucus outside the nose. The air that is inhaled is moistened, heated and cleaned by the tissue that lines the nasal cavity.
Making up medical or psychiatric symptoms to get attention (but without realizing that it is to get attention) is known by the name of ____________ disorder.
a. Tourette
b. Munchausen
c. Beck
d. Rorschach
Answer:
b. Munchausen
Explanation:
The Munchausen disorder is a psychiatric disorder closely associated with severe emotional difficulties in which a person repeatedly pretends to have psychiatric or physical symptoms, such as chest pain, stomach problems, fever and allusions, or tries to get ill (For example, by trying to hurt themselves) in order to draw attention, sympathy or reassurance to themselves.
What is organic farming/food?
Answer:
We talk about organic foods to all those products, whether vegetable or animal that come from a breeding or cultivation where no type of chemicals or hormones have been used for their development, nor have they undergone forced or artificial processes.
These foods have the following benefits:
- freshness
- nutritional value
- they're healthy
- they are not polluting for the environment
Elevated levels of cortisol would:
A. increase CRH and ACTH
B. exert permissive effects on the heart
C. promote anti-inflammation
D. inhibit proteolysis in skeletal muscle
E. More than one of the above apply
Answer:
The correct answer here is e) more than one apply here
Explanation:
Look cortisol is very essential for a persons health as this is the hormone ( which is produced in adrenal glands) which sees how the body is going to respond to the stress. This cortisol hormone helps in controlling the blood pressure, controlling sugar levels in our blood etc.
But if the levels of cortisol are increase then the CRH (Corticotropin releasing hormone) and ACTH(Adrenocorticotropic hormone) also increases which can lead to the corticotrop tumor.
With the increase in the cortisol levels , it will lead to the decrease in the inflammation and also our body won't react to the stress properly, our blood sugar levels and stress levels with blood pressure would increase which leads to bad effects on the heart.
So therefore we can say that the option e is correct.
As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr efect)
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. False.
Explanation:
John Scott Haldane described a property of hemoglobin which is termed as the Haldane effect. Displacement of carbon dioxide from the hemoglobin of blood by oxygen in the lungs. It promotes the removal of CO₂ from the blood. This process is the Haldane effect.
Decrease in the affinity of the oxygen to binding with hemoglobin in response to a decrease in blood pH due to increased CO₂ concentration in the blood. It is the Bohr effect.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. false.
Why is it important that bone formation and bone resorption are balanced? What happens if this balance is disturbed?
Answer:
Bone formation and bone resorption are two processes, which are responsible for balancing or homeostasis of bones. Bone formation can be defined as a process that leads to formation of new bones. Bone resorption involves a process that causes breakdown of bone tissue by releasing minerals.
If this balance gets disturbed it would lead to bone disorders. Inadequate bone formation or increased bone resorption can leads to weakening of bones or osteoporosis, due to which bones become fragile and prone to fractures.
Thus, balancing of bone formation and bone resorption is important for maintaining homeostasis in bones.
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
a. excitation of the SA node
b. closure of the heart valves
c. friction of blood against the chamber walls
d. opening and closing of the heart valves
Answer:
The answer is D opening and closing of the heart valves
Explanation:
The closure of both atrial and ventricular heart valves are responsible for normal heart sounds, it should be said that blood circulation must be laminal, without turbulence or colliding with the walls of the heart.
Normal sounds of heart are caused due to "opening and closing of heart valves".
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The two noteworthy sounds heard in the ordinary heart sound like "lub and dub". The “lub" is the main heart sound, generally named S1, and is brought about by the closing of mitral and tricuspid valves toward the beginning of systole.
The subsequent sound,"dub" or S2, is brought about by the closing of aortic and pulmonic valves, denoting the end of the systole
The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by the:
a. corpus callosum
b. thalamus
c. central sulcus
d. optic chiasm
Answer:
The answer is A: corpus callosum
Explanation:
The corpus callosum is a structure that is located in the deep part of the brain and whose function is to unite the two cerebral hemispheres. it is responsible for coordinating the functions of both hemispheres.
A muscle inserted at the thyroid cartilage of larynx that originates in the manubrium of sternum.
Answer:
Sternothyroideus (or sternothyroid muscle)
Explanation:
Sternothyroideus is a muscle present in neck of the human body. The muscle is shorter as well as wider than sternohyoideus. It is situated beneath sternohyoideus.
This muscle arises from posterior surface of the manubrium of sternum as well as from edge of cartilage of first rib or sometimes that of second rib. It is inserted into oblique line on lamina of thyroid cartilage.
Pulmonology is the study of the __________ and associated structures.
a. lungs
b. trachea
c. alveoli
d. sternum
Answer:
A. Lungs.
Explanation:
Pulmonology is a medical specialty that deals with diseases involving the respiratory tract. It comes from the Greek and the world could be translated as the study of lungs.
It is considered as a branch of internal medicine and is related to intensive care medicine.
I hope this answer helps you.
Answer: a. lungs
Explanation: took the final
Which of the following occurs during heightened iron needs?
a. genes of the GI tract produce more proteins that assist with iron absorption
b. more iron is absorbed from the foods we consume
c. our body absorbs iron at a slower rate but more efficiently
d. a and b
Answer:a
Explanation:
Because the body will react to it right away
During heightened iron needs, both genes of the GI tract producing more iron absorption proteins and increased absorption of iron from food occur.
Option (d) is correct
During heightened iron needs, both options a and b occur. Option a states that genes of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract produce more proteins that assist with iron absorption. This means that the body increases the production of proteins involved in transporting and absorbing iron from the intestines. Option b states that more iron is absorbed from the foods we consume. This means that the body increases its uptake of iron from the digestive system to meet the heightened iron needs.
These mechanisms are part of the body's response to increased iron requirements, such as during periods of growth, pregnancy, or in cases of iron deficiency.
By increasing the production of iron-binding proteins and enhancing the absorption of iron from the diet, the body aims to meet the increased demand and maintain adequate iron levels for essential physiological functions, such as oxygen transport and enzyme activities. Therefore, both option a and b are correct statements regarding what occurs during heightened iron needs.
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When checking a victim for a head or spine injury, move the victim so they are lying on their back.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
In case any victim is suspected from the spinal or neck injury then the victim should not be moved on any side. He must be left untouched.
Doing so can make the person permanently paralysed. Try to cover the front and back of the neck with rolled piece of clothe but do not move the person unnecessarily.
Hence, the given statement is False.
Which one of the following does not belong to this set of bone types?
A) Dense bone
B) cortical bone
C) cancellous bone
D) compact bone
Answer:
C) Cancellous bone
Explanation:
Bones in the body are composed of 2 types of tissues:
1. Compact bone: Compact bone is also called as cortical bone, a dense bone. It is hard outer layer that is strong, dense and durable. Compact bone makes up almost 80% of adult bone mass.
2. Cancellous bone: The bone contains a network of rod-like structures. They are less dense and more flexible than compact bones.
Option A, B and D belong to one type of bone.
Thus C is the answer